and for the eleventh time im telling you you are blurring the line between means and motive.
No, I am not. If a man is motivated to an action without a spirit of conformity to the demands of his Maker upon his life, his motive is evil every time.
I know stopping abortion (the motive) doesn't justify murder (means), that is the basis of my point which is one can have a pure motive but choose the wrong means. I know you are wise enough to make that differentiation if you are not overly consumed with 'being right' all the time.
The problem with murder IS the motive. The motive is the pursuit of self-will rather than the Maker's demands.
to presume his motive must have been impure because his mean were impure actually undermines your argument because it implies that if Gods chosen means are impure that his motive must also be impure.
Means CANNOT be pure or impure. Means have no moral value. Only PERSONS have moral value.
Chaos is not
morally good or evil.
Disaster is not in and of itself morally evil.
Bleeding is not morally evil.
Pain will not be judged at the Great White Throne.
Why? Because chaos, disaster, bleeding and pain are not persons. They are not evil or good
morally.
It begs the question to assume that incorrect means
I do not know why you keep going to this.
I have been abundantly clear that MEANS are not morally evil in and of themselves.
To argue that they are seems like madness to me.
Translation: 'Are these the right means to accomplish this motive?'
Wrong. Try: Is what I am considering doing in line with the demands of God upon my life. In other words, am I moved to this action by a desire to conform my way to my Maker's demands? Is my motive to please Him?
That has NOTHING to do with the means and EVERYTHING to do with the motive.
Notice that the affirmative answer to this question ONLY validates the means, but the motive could be completely impure and this question could still be answered 'YES.'
Wrong. See above.
See how you have failed once again to distinguish between means and motive? If you cant make that distinction you fall into pragmatism which says, 'The ends always justifies the means,' and i really dont think you want to go there.
If the ends are always to rightly conform one's self to the demands of God, to surrender completely and humbly to God's rule, then the means WILL be acceptable. If the person got it wrong it is either because he is MAD (in which case his deeds are truly NOT morally evil: he will not be judged for them) or the Word of God is not clear.
Unless you would deny the Perspicuity of Scripture then you'd have to agree.
The only way that you can argue otherwise is say, "But if that man THINKS he IS obeying..." which argues that the Bible is unclear.
Why else would he not be able to find out the demands of God upon him?
You might say, "What if he has not read the Bible?" This wrongly assumes that a man can take up such an action of this magnitude (the taking of another human life) without vigorously pursuing what the Almighty demands of him, and still have a good motive. He cannot.
If a man does something of this magnitude without aggressively pursuing the knowledge of the demands of God on him, his motive is EVIL- every time.
No man can have a good motive for ANYTHING if it does not move him to conform to the demands of his Maker. Period.
Your question makes it appear the means are never wrong if the motive is right, which once again begs the question and is biblically unfounded.
Wrong.
The
Lord Jesus said that it is that which comes OUT of a man is that which defiles him.
There was a standard- wash your hands. Jesus disciples did not do it. They accused them of sin. Jesus said, basically, "You are ignorant of the nature of sin.
Sin is not about what is DONE, it is about the heart underneath what is done."
Sin is most certainly a transgression of the law, but why?
Because of the heart that will not conform itself to the demands (law) of the Maker.
So if my motive is to make myself look good to those in the church i could give a big donation. Would that be an effective means to accomplish that motive? Yes, it could make me look good, but it would be wrong because i did it for the wrong reason.
Yes, not because your donation was evil in and of itself (donation is not itself either good or evil), but because your MOTIVE is self-driven.
Now you are starting to get it.
Why not just say, as I did before, that you could vote for pro-life leaders? I think that would work better than 'gum chewing.' There is nothing immoral about voting for a prolife canidate (means) in order to accomplish the motive of stoping abortion. BUt if that same person, believes God wants him to save the babies by force and murders the doctor then his MEANS have changed, his reason for doing it is the same...to stop abortions.
More importantly, his MOTIVE has changed. He went from a motive which is driven by a desire to conform one's self to the demands of God to one which self-willfully ignores the demands of God.
His motive MUST be driven by submission to his Maker.
Whatsoever is not of faith is SIN according to the Scripture.
Something is not true just because you say it enough times Luke. You are begging the question. The motive is evil when the motive is evil.
That's silly and I have said no such thing. I have given clear REASONS why the motive is evil. Motive is good or evil based on the desire that emanates from it, whether or not that desire is to submit to the demands of God.
Since that is clear enough you ought to withdraw this remark.
The means are evil when the means are evil. You have to prove that wrong means necessitate wrong motives.
This has NOTHING at all to do with anything I am saying.
That presumes that the individual doesnt sincerely believe that God demands him to murder the baby killer.
Wrong again. And I have dealt with this at length.
This statement undermines the great doctrine of the Perspicuity of Scripture.
There are many verses which could be interpreted to support this view, which would be wrong, but again incorrect understanding can lead one with good motives to make bad choices.
TOTALLY undermines the doctrine of the Perspicuity of Scripture.
I said you would have to undermine that doctrine to argue along these lines and you are doing just that.
You are now presuming you know every mans conscience when he makes a poor choice based upon the magnitude of the mans sin, but this is also true of any 'small sin' not just murder so we could just change the illustration to negate this presumption.
Wrong. Show the link between what I am saying and what you are claiming I am saying. Saying I am saying something doesn't say anything.:thumbs: Prove it.
Again, we could change the illustration to discuss a LESS CLEAR rule which would negate this presumption as well. For example, a pastor may desire to get help with serving the people of his congregation (good motive) and his view of scripture is in conflict with others believers about who and who is not qualified for that role of deacon. If he chose a divorced man one might argue he has sinned, even if his motive was good. Is the motive in question? No, the means are being debated... is it RIGHT to appoint a divorced man as a deacon to accomplish the motive of serving the and dont you think that doing an evil deed (like killing Jesus) isnt consistent with himself? Dont you think that is why the confession and edwards and the rest are emphatic to say GOd didnt do it, but that he permitted it and disposed events and used SECOND causes, etc? You just say 'HE DID IT and MEN DID IT' which is not what they are saying at all!!!!
The confessions nor these men do NOT say that. In fact, Calvin is clear that God DID do it (which I have proven with quotes to you before) and Edwards most certainly believed that God did it.
As to your illustration, "RIGHT" is simply this: submission to the Lordship of God as the all-wise and omni-benevolent ruler.
WHAT? Do you believe that the ends always justify the means? YOu are ok with manipulative preachers?
????!?
both are evil, one is a natural calamity[evil] like a earthquake, the second is a moral evil.
Both are NOT
MORALLY evil, are they? Tell me why that is so. Tell me what the difference is.
Now that Ive gone through the post line by line make sure you still look at the points of my follow up posts and you will see that I addressed all our points of contention in them as well.
And I thank you. There is no point of trying to have a discussion if we are just going to talk PAST one another. Ignoring one's arguments while making other arguments of one's own is NOT a discussion. What you did here is necessary if we are to make any progress at all in the goal of iron sharpening iron.
I will not, nor should you, continue meeting requests when my previous arguments have not been addressed. I am certain webdog will like to spit here from the safety of the sidelines, but this is why I would not answer the request for a definition until my PREVIOUS request for answers to those questions were given.
In my next few posts I will address your answers.