preacher4truth
Active Member
2Pet.3:9 says "unto repentance;" it does not say one must repent of any sin to be saved. Furthermore, it is God's will and desire for all men to be saved, whereas we know all men will not be saved. It is an expressed desire. There is no "repent from" in order to be saved in that verse.
Uh. Not quite. He awaits them to come to repentance. It's salvational. Obviously if He awaits them to repent, they must be repenting "from" something. Wrong again.
What many other verses? 2 Peter 3:9 is very clear. Many scholars and commentaries agree God awaits repentant ones to receive His Son.
lolololol!!!! Yeah, sure. It's used in the Epistles. We've shown you. Numerous times.I had to define repentance for you, a definition I still don't think you have quite comprehended, and why it is not used in the epistles.
BolognaTo challenge one, it is not in the epistles.
Garlic Bologna. And you're the only one coming up with this "repent of all their sins" nonsense. I've never said this one time. That's all on you.To challenge two, it doesn't say one must repent of all their sins.
Not quite. It was 100% successful.It fails on both counts.
Too bad. I gave you one anyhow.By your definition. It does not meet the challenges that I issued you.
I didn't ask for verse with the word "repent" in it. I asked very specific questions which apparently you are not able to answer and for good reason.
"Uh. Naw"...sums up all you've said. But I'll elaborate!
Oh, another personal slam? I'm "not able?" I'm very capable thanks.
Then you had to "define" something for me, repentance? Uh. Naw. Another personal slam? I can't comprehend? Another still? Repentance is in the NT epistles. We've shown you many times. :sleep:
As to 2 Peter 3:9:
What in the world do you think God is waiting for them to repent for, fella? So He can send them to hell? Quit with your wrangling things to mean what YOU want them to. He is withholding His Son until others come to repentance. Which to Him means His Son. And to others who can interpret this passage and its meaning without having to have it say what they want, it means to salvation.
What you asked for you got, then you changed what you meant to ask for because you got shown that it's right there.
It is clear this is salvific. Should I apologize it has the word repent in it? :laugh:
And you're mad about this whole thing, it shines through. Next time list out all your little rules, like it can't have the word repent (the reason you're so mad because it had the word, and made it so apparent that repentance is in the NT Epistles salvifically). Unreal. Mad it has the word "repent" in it. LOL!
And as too your numerous "I didn't ask for..." qualifiers? I really couldn't care less. Anytime you are answered you change what you want.
By the way, I have freedom to answer to the depth I feel in answering your questions, as anyone else on here also has.
It is totally clear God is awaiting persons to be saved in 2 Peter 3:9 no matter how you try and bring it to mean your theology. That's called eisegetical analysis.
It is salvational. God is awaiting those who he has ordained to eternal life to repent. It's called waiting for them to be saved. :wavey:
Next question? You've clearly been shown that repentance in the salvific sense is definitely in a NT Epistle.
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