What biblical 'proof' do you have that those Gifts of the HS actually fully passed away?
Haven't read the whole thread, but let me ask the question right back to you.
What proof can you present that the miraculous sign gifts have not passed away. If they have not passed away then there would be at least some evidence of their manifestation of God working through them today, but there isn't, and with the amount of high-tech technology that we have today we certainly would know about it if it was taking place.
Here are some examples:
The gift of healing:
There came also a multitude out of the cities round about unto Jerusalem, bringing sick folks, and them which were vexed with unclean spirits: and
they were healed every one. (Acts 5:16)
--Peter had the gift of healing.
He healed everyone that came to him. There were not a few--all that came from all the cities around Jerusalem and in Jerusalem itself. Throngs, crowds, he healed them all--paraplegics, MS patients, paralyzed people, those with obvious broken bones, the lame, blind, whatever disease they might have had--he healed them. And their healing was immediate. There was no process involved.
The parallel to that would be if a "faith healer" (someone claiming to have the same gift) would go into all the hospitals of one city and healing all the people in that city--all in the ER rooms, up and down the corridors: the palliative care, the psychiatric ward, the children's ward, geriatric's ward, intensive care, obstetrics, and all the other wards in the hospital. He would be able to heal all in the hospital with a touch, or just a word--immediately; no process involved. That is the gift of healing. Does this happen today? Can you point anywhere in the world where such an event is occurring? If not the gift of healing has ceased!
Tongues. The word means languages--known languages. They are real known languages, unknown to the speaker but known to the audience. Why do missionaries have to study the language of a foreign nation? Because this gift has ceased. Why did they need an interpreter? Because it was a sign to the Jew. It was probably interpreted back into Hebrew for the benefit of the Jew, a sign to the Jew (1Cor.14:21,22).
Where is this taking place today. Where do missionaries have no requirement of studying the language because God grants them the ability to speak the language without a word of study? Don't give me an anecdotal incident. If this gift were going on today it would be popular, happening with great frequency--so often that very few missionaries would have to study foreign languages. Why is that not the case. Why? The gift of languages (tongues) has ceased. We have no evidence of these supernatural gifts occurring today.