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When he talked about IF we say no sin in us, and IF we confess our sins to the Lord?
There is no way a forgive (sic) person can then be reversed, as it were, out of that condition of forgiveness and held before the judgment bar of God to pay ultimately for his own sins. I just want to make it very clear that all our sins are forgiven and yet in spite of this gracious, merciful generosity on God's part toward all of those who repent and embrace Jesus Christ we are still, according to 1 John 1, we are still known as Christians because we continue to confess our sins. And that is what verse 9 is saying, if we are confessing our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. And we looked at that in some detail and pointed out that is not a command, that is a statement of fact. True believers are habitual confessors who therefore demonstrate that their sins are continually being forgiven. We are still known as penitent. We are still known as eager to repent, as confessors of sin.
I disagree. This entire letter is written to the saved.
FAL, although I appreciate zeal to not sin, and that you are eager to tell others how youu go days at a time with never sinning, that does not in turn make the parts of this passage you want to apply to the lost then apply to them. This is simply to protect this ideology of yours, and alleged application to the lost as true.
By the way, I have yet found any commentators state this is referring to the lost. The context and intended audience makes no change at all from saved to lost, although there are references to what a saved person looks like, and what a lost person looks like. But much of this has to do with those within a gnostic religion when referring to the lost, or those who have denied the truth.
The "we" from vs. 1 to vs. 10 are all to the saved, to the church. As a matter of fact, this entire Epistle is to the church. There are other passages that speak of the sin of believers, the church, in the Epistles, and forgiveness, restoration & c. I'm of the understand that you would also apply your ideology here to interpret them all through your same lens.
I will not, nor do I see in Scripture any support for a fallen brother or sister, to cast them as then "lost" and needing to be saved because they've sinned. This is unrealistic and is not Scriptural. If they have lived a lifestyle of sin, that is a different story altogether.
John here is showing what our walk is like, it is of repentance, and confessing, and washing, and fellowship. This is the Walk and the Christian life, a lifestyle and cycle of repentance, cleansing, fellowship.
Also, the beloved John MacArthur Jr. also states this is in reference to believers, not unbelievers:
- Peace
I don't disagree with that statement, but the passage is not given to teach the saved to confess. The saved already confess. The passage is speaking about the lost (Gnostics) who have to accept that they are sinners and confess such which they denied.
I have to disagree with you here, as Epistles are in fact instructions for Christians by their very nature. Making forgive to mean "save" ("save us speaking of the lost") strictly as you've stated in your first reply is incorrect. It is talking specifically of believers here, not the lost, as the "we" in context belongs to the recipients of this Epistle in its context and is supported by the context.
Certainly others have taught believers how to walk with God, and from this text also, how the believer is to walk, confess, be cleansed, maintain clean fellowship with God. It has certainly been preached from pulpits and has been a great comfort for those new believers and those saved longer. Certainly the believers here also were taught this, and this is instruction for them, and is also used comparatively against false teaching.
The "we" never makes a transition to the lost, or to the gnostics, though it certainly is in reference and opposition to their false teaching. It is also a subjunctive mood, a probable action, which only applies then to the saved, as this is a practice of the redeemed, that they live this lifestyle, they are the ones who confess sin. This subjunctive mood then isolates this to the saved. Can a gnostic check in, see this, recognize being lost, and needing to be redeemed? Most certainly this can happen, but this is still written to and for the saved as instruction and also as confirmation of their being born again and of assurance of salvation.
The answer is yes but usually it has a modifier or context will rule. The thing is that John is writing to a church (group of believers) to combat the teachings of the Gnostics. That is why he says in the first chapter;Just a question on this discussion!
Does Apostle John, or ANY other Apostolic author use same Greek term for"children" to refer to ANY other than genuine believers, aka Gnostics?
Just a question on this discussion!
Does Apostle John, or ANY other Apostolic author use same Greek term for "children" to refer to ANY other than genuine believers, aka Gnostics?
The passage has been miss-applied for years by Christians because they do not study and see who is being spoken to and why...The passage in 1 John 1:9 and 10 is about a lost person not a saved one. The saved are already forgiven. The lost deny their sin. He is saying if we are willing to confess our sin He is faithful to forgive us (save us speaking of the lost) Verse 10 affirms this.
I don't disagree with that statement, but the passage is not given to teach the saved to confess. The saved already confess. The passage is speaking about the lost (Gnostics) who have to accept that they are sinners and confess such which they denied.
The answer is yes but usually it has a modifier or context will rule. The thing is that John is writing to a church (group of believers) to combat the teachings of the Gnostics. That is why he says in the first chapter;
That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;
Another false teaching of the Gnostics was that while they accepted Jesus they denied that He could come in the flesh because of their false belief of separation of spirit and flesh. They taught the spirit is good and flesh is evil and God being spirit could not take on a body which was evil. John is trying to stop these false teachings from spreading.
EVERY time that Greek word is used by ANY author though in the NT always refers to those saved by grace of God, little children, those who Christ died for and made right with God!
In post #5 FAL said some teach "You don't have to confess your sins to be saved. All you have to do is believe in Jesus.".
Who teaches this? If you believe the gospel, then you must confess you are a sinner.
1 Cor 15:3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:
How can you believe that Jesus died for your sins and not confess you are a sinner? That is impossible.
If some preacher neglects to teach that Jesus died for our sins, FAL might have a point, but I have never heard any preacher do this.
All persons who have heard the true gospel and believe on Jesus have confessed they are a sinner, it is impossible to do otherwise.
Try grasping the context winman.
He means "OTHERS" teach this, not him. The context shows this.
You are consistently missing meaning, intent, context. Then you go on a rant oblivious to the intent, missing it by miles, and stay there for several posts in response.
You are guilty of what you accuse me of, I said that FAL said "some teach" that we do not have to confess our sins to be saved. Read more carefully.
I have never heard or known of any preacher who says it is not necessary to confess we are sinners to be saved. Perhaps he can provide some proof for this statement.
Now, there are those who teach we must add our own works to the finished work of Christ to be saved, and this is my objection to Lordship Salvation.
But that is off topic. 1 Jn 1:8-9 is written to believers. All believers sin at times and we must confess our sins to maintain "fellowship" with him.
This is the topic of chapter 1, fellowship. It is mentioned in verses 3, 6, and 7. If we sin (and we do) then we are out of fellowship, not lost.
And if there are no Gnostics in our area of the world, we can just rip this book out of our Bibles? Right? It has no application to us, for it only applies to gnostics.The passage has been miss-applied for years by Christians because they do not study and see who is being spoken to and why. Many pastors are guilty of not teaching this book correctly and especially these passages, confusing the word of God.
John is talking to the saved about the false teachings of Gnosticism that had crept into the church.
Prattle.
You clearly took him out of context in your first line.
The rest of your ramble continues this.
And if there are no Gnostics in our area of the world, we can just rip this book out of our Bibles? Right? It has no application to us, for it only applies to gnostics.
Baloney, he was quoting a sermon he was in agreement with.
I simply want to know who these false teachers are that teach we do not have to confess we are sinners to be saved, just simply believe on Jesus.