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Do You Believe in Absolutes?

Gup20

Active Member
No, as a presuppositionalist the issue is quite different. As a presuppositionalist, I would think this debate between Bahnsen and Stein. This is considered one of the top debates on the existence of God in the 20th Century and revolutionized how people discuss God. This is also the basis of my view on Special Revelation.

I also invite you to read Van Till's apologetics entitled, "Defending the Faith". This isn't his best work, but still a classic (and free).

The key issue we face is whether we will surrender to carnal thought or by being renewed by Scripture.

Yet, listen to the debate by Bahnsen. This is required listening in many apologetics classes and it changed how ethics and apologetics was discussed for the next 20+ years.

I am not sure I know what specifically you mean when you say you are a presuppositionalist, but I do agree that we must have the presupposition of the Bible to form our philosophy and theology.

http://www.answersingenesis.org/articles/2008/03/21/feedback-logic-over-bible

Have you ever watched Dr. Jason Lisle's talk on "Nuclear Strength Apologetics" and heard his irrefutable argument?

http://www.answersingenesis.org/media#/video/ondemand/nuclear-strength-apologetics
 

Gup, Just one more thing. I also have observed that those lovely loving caring children grow up, and sometimes, around 15-17 might just take a notion and get right up in your face.:BangHead:
 

Jerry Shugart

New Member
I take the Van Tillian view of presuppositionalism as my basis, that we are foolish to not presume the Bible first.
What is the purpose of the school of apologetics called presuppositionalism in regard to unbelievers?

Surely those unbelievers will not be able to understand the truth apart from the receiving of the Spirit?:

"For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God. Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God" (1 Cor.2:11-12).

There is only one way of receiving the Spirit and that is by believing the gospel, as evidenced by the following rhetorical question asked by Paul:

"I would like to learn just one thing from you: Did you receive the Spirit by the works of the law, or by believing what you heard?" (Gal.3:2).

Why not just cut to the chase and preach the gospel to unbelievers?

I cannot see any purpose for the school of apologetics called presuppositionalism. Perhaps you can enlighten me.

Thanks!
 

Gup: but I do agree that we must have the presupposition of the Bible to form our philosophy and theology.

HP: Why say "the presupposition of the Bible"? The Bible first has to be read and ones interpretations examined by every available means granted to us by God if we are to arrive at truth. We have to seek truth as we would as gold and silver if we desire to arrive at truth. Scriptural truth does not just fall out of the pages as Calvinistic nuggets......at least they do not fall out as such from my Bible. :)
 
Jerry:I cannot see any purpose for the school of apologetics called presuppositionalism. Perhaps you can enlighten me.

HP: I bet the only nuggets found falling from the pages of Scripture in that school are distinctively Calvinistic. Am I hot or cold?:tonofbricks:
 

Gup20

Active Member
From Atheism - An irrational Worldview

Dr. Jason Lisle said:
Reasoning involves using the laws of logic. These include the law of non-contradiction which says that you can’t have A and not-A at the same time and in the same relationship. For example, the statement “My car is in the parking lot, and it is not the case that my car is in the parking lot” is necessarily false by the law of non-contradiction. Any rational person would accept this law. But why is this law true? Why should there be a law of non-contradiction, or for that matter, any laws of reasoning? The Christian can answer this question. For the Christian there is an absolute standard for reasoning; we are to pattern our thoughts after God’s. The laws of logic are a reflection of the way God thinks. The law of non-contradiction is not simply one person’s opinion of how we ought to think, rather it stems from God’s self-consistent nature. God cannot deny Himself ( 2 Timothy 2:13), and so, the way God upholds the universe will necessarily be non-contradictory.

Most of us reason based on our own experiences... but how do we know the memory of our experiences is reliable? There are certainly presuppositions we have to use to even trust our senses enough to believe there is a God.
 
Gup; Most of us reason based on our own experiences... but how do we know the memory of our experiences is reliable? There are certainly presuppositions we have to use to even trust our senses enough to believe there is a God.

HP: Why not do our best to reason from some of the most basic and true God-inspired universal principles testified to us as truth infallibly by conscience?
 

Ruiz

New Member
Don't you dare, Ruiz, go to Scripture first. If you do that, you will have to prove they are true first. What standard of truth can you prove is truth to judge them by?

I wonder where he might go to find evidence of a God?? If he cannot 'prove' it apart from Scripture to an inquisitive mind, does that somehow 'prove' that is cannot be properly established apart from first going to the Scripture? If he goes to Scripture first to prove there is a God, would not that be called, by a common philosopher, a logical fallacy, reasoning in a circle as I recall Ruiz saying my approach was?

I do not, as I stated before I am a presuppositionalist. That is not how presuppositionalists prove anything. We acknowledge there are presuppositions that everyone holds. I believe you must hold to one. the issue is whether your presuppositions are accurate or not. Bahnsen explains what are accurate presuppositions is the issue.
 

The Biblicist

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
In this passage we see a pattern of making a statement and then making a second statement that adds to or further clarifies the first statement. It says they go astray after they are born, not while in the womb. It says "from" the womb, meaning once they "come from" the womb - in other words, after they are born.

3 The wicked are estranged from the womb: they go astray as soon as they be born, speaking lies.
4 Their poison is like the poison of a serpent: they are like the deaf adder that stoppeth her ear;
5 Which will not hearken to the voice of charmers, charming never so wisely.


The context shows that David is describing their SINFUL NATURE as it characterizes them from birth. This is self-evident in verses 4-5.


Shapen in iniquity - Shapen is the word chuwl which means to writh, dance, twist, to be born, to be brought forth. Iniquity is the word avon which can mean 'punishment for iniquity' or 'consequence for iniquity'. Notice the word "sin" is used in the verse. David could have used the word sin - chet - but used avon instead.

Furthermore, in the second half of the verse, you must apply the verb to the subject consistently. If you apply "sin" to David, then you must also apply "conceived" to David in a consistent manner and that would mean that David conceived himself which is ridiculous.

So the verse could literally be translated - "I was brought forth under the punishment for sin; my mother was a sinner when she conceived me. "

The context is repentance over his sin as an adult and in the case of Uriah and Bathsheba. Your interpretation is rediculous as what mother is not a sinner when they conceive children! To imply that he was conceived out of wedlock is without any historical or Biblical evidence.

This text like the former is admission that he born a sinner by nature and thus his sins in connection with Uriah and Bathsheba simply demonstrate and manifest that sin nature.



Psa 139:13 For You formed my inward parts; You wove me in my mother's womb.

Psa 22:10 I was cast upon thee from the womb: thou [art] my God from my mother's belly.

God is the author of physical life but these texts do not support your position at all.


Gal 4:4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.

Jesus was also the son of man born of a sinful woman. If you say he wasn't, then you say he is disqualified to be our redeemer.

He was not concieved by a sinful woman as other humans were. He was conceived by the Spirit of God without a human father. It takes a father and mother to concieve a child naturally.



You must have seriously hated your children to characterize them in this way. I have a daughter who is nearly 2 and she requires only minimal disciple. She is a true joy. I have observed she has a genuinely good and loving heart. She has such pure faith in those around her and always thinks good of those around her. In fact, I have learned so much about what pure, undefiled, unselfish love is from her. In her I have observed true empathy and altruism - something I find completely lacking in adults.

No, I did not hate my children and to insinuate that is absurd! You are sorely mistaken about your daughter and you are looking through rose colored glasses which will be shattered before long.




If you meet a child's needs, they tend to not behave in a depraved manner. The Bible says spare the rod spoil the child, it does not say too much love, affection, and service will spoil the child. Failure to discipline wrong behavior will spoil a child, not an over abundance of meeting their needs. I suggest that if your kids came out little sinners it is because you failed as a parent to meet their needs.

If your position had any truth the bible would never say that foolishness is "bound up in the heart of a child" and never would warn against sparing the rod but just simply say love your child and you will never have any discipline problems. Your position is rediculous and manifestly unbiblical.

Hbr 2:15 And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.

It's a fear of not having needs met that enslaves people to sin and selfishness.

All men fear death because it is unknown and because many know they must pay for their sins. Fear is not the cause of sin nor is it the cause of death - that is pure false doctrine. We were "MADE SINNERS" by "ONE MAN'S OFFENCE not by fear of death!
 

Ruiz

New Member
What is the purpose of the school of apologetics called presuppositionalism in regard to unbelievers?

Surely those unbelievers will not be able to understand the truth apart from the receiving of the Spirit?:

"For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God. Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God" (1 Cor.2:11-12).

There is only one way of receiving the Spirit and that is by believing the gospel, as evidenced by the following rhetorical question asked by Paul:

"I would like to learn just one thing from you: Did you receive the Spirit by the works of the law, or by believing what you heard?" (Gal.3:2).

Why not just cut to the chase and preach the gospel to unbelievers?

I cannot see any purpose for the school of apologetics called presuppositionalism. Perhaps you can enlighten me.

Thanks!

I would listen to the Bahnsen debate that I posted. Everyone holds to presuppositions that they do not prove and are circular. We believe that the system must be reviewed based upon their presuppositions. It is my view that all other systems are irrational unless you hold onto the Christian worldview. Thus, we show the atheist how their system is a failure based on their own presuppositions and that the only one that stands is the Christian viewpoint. It is through regeneration will they believe, so then we turn to the Bible and Special Revelation.
 

Ruiz

New Member
I am not sure I know what specifically you mean when you say you are a presuppositionalist, but I do agree that we must have the presupposition of the Bible to form our philosophy and theology.

http://www.answersingenesis.org/articles/2008/03/21/feedback-logic-over-bible

Have you ever watched Dr. Jason Lisle's talk on "Nuclear Strength Apologetics" and heard his irrefutable argument?

http://www.answersingenesis.org/media#/video/ondemand/nuclear-strength-apologetics

Answers in Genesis, while not officially presuppositional in their approach, is very sympathetic and often employ our apologetical methods. I have much respect for their honest in this regards.
 

Ruiz

New Member
HP: I am not debating Bahnsen or Van Till. I am debating you. I did nothing other than to force you into the same philosophical/ logical box you attempted to force me into.

Ruiz, back to the real debate. This Scripture has been posted many times by more than one.

Rom 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse."

Tell us why in your own words, this Scripture does not clearly refute your position that one cannot know anything blameworthy or praiseworthy without going to Scripture 'first.' Does not 'without excuse' set forth clearly they know without any excuse that their moral actions are either approved or disapproved by God? They might not know Him as God, but again that is no excuse for the violation of moral truths presented to the mind by conscience. They know intuitively right from wrong, at least in a limited degree, enough to convict them of sin.

Your response?

It doesn't! If you say that General Revelation is more trustworthy than Special Revelation and should be the foundation of philosophy, you prove my point by quoting Scripture as your basis.

Yet, in General Revelation it shows that everyone rejects General Revelation. It is only through Special Revelation do people change their mind and renew their mind. that is the point of Romans.

Yet, if you use Scripture, you are saying your presupposition is Scripture as your basis. Yet, you said it is not accurate to go to Scripture, it is like looking through coke bottle bottoms, and thus not clear. So, I am waiting for a naturalistic or General Revelation evidence to support your belief. If you can't you are proving your own argument is inadequate.
 

Ruiz

New Member
>Ruiz: It is the Word of God that creates into us presuppositions. We don't have private interpretations nor do we create the Scripture/intepretations of Scripture, but Scripture creates in us a new way of thinking, new presuppositions, etc.

Logically, every small denomination and some large ones have a private interpretation of scripture else they would not exist.

Further, even turning good stuff into absolutes is dangerous and fanatical thus the the OLD saying, "To heavenly minded to be earthly any good (useful)."

The Bible is clear, while there are some minor differences the Bible is still perspicuous. I would not say that a Presbyterian or a Sovereign Grace Ministries believer is not a Christian. We have essentials in which we agree. There are minor differences, but no major issues. It is when people replace the Bible with modernism/liberalism/philosophy do they no longer become a Christian.
 

Ruiz

New Member
My question to the list: Is the notion that Ruiz suggests, that nothing can be established or proven as blameworthy or praiseworthy apart from FIRST going to Scripture correct? Is Scriptural revelation necessary to establish intuitive truths instilled in the heart of man by God, 'without which,' first going to Scripture, they cannot be established as truth?

If I, in any way, am misrepresenting what he said, please someone, anyone, set me straight. I do not desire to beat against the wind.

Intuition is not proof. There is nothing rational about it. Rather, it is an excuse for irrationality.
 

Ruiz

New Member

HP: You are simply and eternally wrong. Because one is stubborn enough, or wicked enough refuses in this world to accept the proof of some things or beleives nothing at all, does not force the conclusion that nothing can be proven, it only reflects their stubborn heart condition.

There is coming a day, called the judgment, that all men will come face to face with God Himself, the Source of all truth. Those that have refused His clear evidence and refused to accept the evidence He instills within us as true and just, will come face to face with the reality of their stubborn rebellious hearts and reap the rewards of their own doing.

Of a truth. All revelation by God, general and Special, will be proven once for all for all to plainly see. Time will PROVE that to be true. All truth will be proven to all in good time.

See Ruiz, you are not dealing with a heathen philosopher as you must believe you are.You simply cannot hold my feet to the same fires. I don't play their silly games, and I will not play yours either. Sorry.

The problem with your "stubborn heart" rampage is that General Revelation is insufficient to turn the stubborn heart. Only Special Revelation can do that. This is the entire point of Romans.
 

Ruiz

New Member
Ruiz, you quote me and then again try to make me say something I have not said nor indicated. Try reading my statement sans your false accusations. Thanks.

If I took out out of context, I am sorry. However, explain what you meant by those phrases. You seem to base Special revelation as secondary to General. I base General Revelation secondary to Special. You believe Special Revelation is not as trustworthy or clear as General. I believe General Revelation is not as trustworthy or clear as Special. How is that wrong?
 
Ruiz: It doesn't! If you say that General Revelation is more trustworthy than Special Revelation and should be the foundation of philosophy, you prove my point by quoting Scripture as your basis.


HP: Of a truth, just because a man says, thus saith the Lord, it may not be so. All Scripture is subject to interpretation and as such is often twisted by presuppositions through which the verse is viewed, the manner one views context. etc.

I have NEVER made a general statement that general revelation is more trustworthy than Scripture. I have never stated that general revelation should be the foundation of ones philosophy. What I have stated repeatedly is that no philosophy/theology should be developed without careful consideration of all insight granted by God, intuitively via first truths of reason and matters of immutable justice, as well as careful study of the Word of God. I have stated that SOME, I repeat SOME aspects of mental and intellectual philosophy can be best seen via introspection as opposed to going to the Scriptures alone. To refuse to carefully examine this aspect of revelation from God, and disallow its testimony to be harmonized with Scripture, is a sure road to certain error, both as philosophers and as theologians. Note carefully that there are clearly a multitude of issues that can only be developed by Scripture, but not so with issues of moral, mental, and intellectual philosophy. God gave us clear abilities of self introspection via conscience to aide in the development of moral issues involving our inner beings.

How many times will I post the same Scripture before you answer my questions concerning it directly? Here it goes again.


Rom 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse."

Tell us why in your own words, this Scripture does not clearly refute your position that one cannot know anything blameworthy or praiseworthy without going to Scripture 'first.' Does not 'without excuse' set forth clearly they know without any excuse that their moral actions are either approved or disapproved by God? They might not know Him as God, but again that is no excuse for the violation of moral truths presented to the mind by conscience. They know intuitively right from wrong, at least in a limited degree, enough to convict them of sin.
 
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Ruiz

New Member

HP: Let me make this perfectly clear. We are first believers and Scripture is always welcomed to make any point one has on any subject. One can use it as primary evidence or supporting evidence, whatever they so desire. This is no heathen philosophical course. This is an exercise to discern the true philosophy Scripture assumes, and to see if in fact the philosophy we believe is assumed in Scripture agrees with revelation from God in other areas of revelation.

the difference is that you believe Scripture is okay to make a point, but you believe it is inadequate. Thus, I am asking you to make your points rationally without Scripture. If Scripture is not to be trusted, you cannnot use it to make your point. I want you to make your point without the Bible. Why? I can make my point using Scripture, but you will reject my arguments on the perspicuity and other doctrines of the Bible. Thus, I want to hold you to the standard within your worldview.

If II Timothy 3:16-17 is accurate, then we must use the Scripture first and foremost. To argue to old argument. Your side would say that man creates the Word of God (General or Special Revelation). I say that the Word of God has always created man. From Genesis 1:1, God spoke and created. With Abraham, he called him, in the New Testament he created us to be new. The Word of God is what creates man, it is authoritative.

Jerry made some excellent observation concerning truths of general revelation, pointed to by Scripture but not established by Scripture. Ruiz simply avoided them.

Of a truth I believe true philosophy can to some degree be established apart from Scripture, and even needs to be examined apart from Scripture to a degree. Scripture speaks of general revelation. It does not suggest that one has to first read Scripture to understand the import of general revelation in the least. One does not have to read Scripture before he reads Scripture, before he reads Scripture to understand and recognize the general revealed truth found in Scripture. Jerry pointed this out clearly in post #18. Romans 1:18-20, Job 37: 3-4, 22,24.


There were no evidence. His statement was not a rational proposition, evidence, and conclusion.

To say that we judge scripture is really arrogant. God's Word is not judged by man, but judges man. Like with Job, to question God's Word is saying we are superior to God. Rather, my point is to say that the Word should not be subject to me, but I am subject to God's Word.

II Timothy 3:16-17 refers to God's Word as "God-Breathed", this is directly from God and is an intimate aspect of God. This is good for a number of things like doctrine, reproof, training in righteousness that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work. You wish to say that it is insufficient. In other words, we need something else to make us thoroughly equipped if you are right. That mentality contradicts II Timothy 3:16-17. In fact, we should "Preach the word" (II Timothy 4:1-2). The focus of our entire Christian life is Special Revelation, not General.


Here is living Scriptural evidence, to us a believers, that general revelation exists outside of Scripture and that Scripture is not the only source of general revelation nor does one have to read scripture to know clearly about general revelation. If you believe that is circular reasoning, hang in there. It gets better.

I mentioned a first truth of reason NOT found directly in Scripture, but clearly I believe it is assumed to be true by Scripture. It is found in post #8. Ruiz he has avoided it altogether unless I missed something, which can happen in these debates. I will post it again. "To do anything praiseworthy of blameworthy one must have contrary choice.


By definition, Scripture is Special revelation and not General Revelation. This is theology 101.

Apart from contrary choice, no choice is possible and apart from choice, nothing blameworthy or praiseworthy can be predicated of ones intents or subsequent actions."

Instead of simply addressing it directly , Ruiz took off on a rabbit trail and tried to indicate no basis of morality can be established apart from Scripture. The only thing sillier I have ever heard along this line would be the often heard false comment, 'you cannot legislate morality.' Both Ruiz's comment and the last one mentioned are far from the truth. Morality of one kind or another is legislated daily, and some basic elements of truth concerning morality, notions of right and wrong, are indeed intuitively planted by God apart from Scripture.

Your presupposition is a circular reason. You base choice upon your own definition of choice and thus you think you proved something. This is clearly circular. You have yet to prove choice is even accurate.

Calling my philosophical statement is silly is okay, I really don't care. But you have yet to prove morality apart from Scripture.

Secondly, morality is legislated but that is not a rational basis for morality. this morality is made up or they rely upon God. I could address this, but I will just refer you to Bahnsen's debate that I have previously cited and asked you to read. Without God, morality is a figment of your imagination. You cannot prove morality without God.


One knows instinctively that they do not desire to be killed. They know intuitively that they do not desire their own things stolen. Both of these notions are intuitive moral notions that are universally held by all men, and are known apart from Scripture. They are moral issues, in spite of the philosophical nonsense Ruiz tries in vain to establish, that nothing moral could be determined apart from Scripture, and that killing millions of Jews could be right and one could believe that Christ did nothing praiseworthy. Much learning has obviously clouded the reasoning powers of some.

Yes, it is impossible to prove Hitler was wrong without God. As you cannot have universal abstracts without the God of the Bible. I ask, prove to me universal abstracts apart from special revelation. This is a major philosophical debate and one you have not engaged in. Again, I point you to Bahnsen's debate.


Certainly men devoid of Scripture could argue for or against anything, even intuitively held principles, and argue, as Ruiz is attempting to do 'sans general revelation or reason,' but all that shows is that men can do despite and argue despite God's intuitive knowledge. They cannot justly establish that nothing can be morally ascertained apart from Scripture. they can simple argue to argue, as Ruiz is again attempting to do.

You can argue based on intuition. So can a Muslim argue that they should kill all those who do not believe in Allah and say it is intuitive. Hindus can say that child rape is good. Romans in the 1st Century said it was good to have sexual relations with boys at young age. They believed it was evident.

You have not showed how one can come to the conclussion that morality exists apart from Scripture. The fact is, nothing can be proven without Scripture. You can say "intuition" but if one person's intuition disagrees with another then who is right? The fact is, you have nothing to argue except that you think I am wrong and you call me names in making your argument.
 

Ruiz

New Member

HP: Of a truth, just because a man says, thus saith the Lord, it may not be so. All Scripture is subject to interpretation and as such is often twisted by presuppositions through which the verse is viewed, the manner one views context. etc.

I have NEVER made a general statement that general revelation is more trustworthy than Scripture. I have never stated that general revelation should be the foundation of ones philosophy. What I have stated repeatedly is that no philosophy/theology should be developed without careful consideration of all insight granted by God, intuitively via first truths of reason and matters of immutable justice, as well as careful study of the Word of God. I have stated that SOME, I repeat SOME aspects of mental and intellectual philosophy can be best seen via introspection as opposed to going to the Scriptures alone. To refuse to carefully examine this aspect of revelation from God, and disallow its testimony to be harmonized with Scripture, is a sure road to certain error, both as philosophers and as theologians. Note carefully that there are clearly a multitude of issues that can only be developed by Scripture, but not so with issues of moral, mental, and intellectual philosophy. God gave us clear abilities of self introspection via conscience to aide in the development of moral issues involving our inner beings.

How many times will I post the same Scripture before you answer my questions concerning it directly? Here it goes again.


Rom 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse."

Tell us why in your own words, this Scripture does not clearly refute your position that one cannot know anything blameworthy or praiseworthy without going to Scripture 'first.' Does not 'without excuse' set forth clearly they know without any excuse that their moral actions are either approved or disapproved by God? They might not know Him as God, but again that is no excuse for the violation of moral truths presented to the mind by conscience. They know intuitively right from wrong, at least in a limited degree, enough to convict them of sin.

Again, listen to Bahnsen. I disagree and I think you can read Van Til to see that you can develop theology and philosophy. Yet, you also say that the Bible is like looking through the bottom of a coke bottle while General Revelation is more trustworthy. Thus, I think the conclusion is simple, you dont' think Scripture is clear and trustworthy.
 
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