Not in any meaningful or helpful way.Oldregular said:Steve
Has Logos answered a single question posed to him?
I suppose we must be grateful for what crumbs he does give us.
Steve
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Not in any meaningful or helpful way.Oldregular said:Steve
Has Logos answered a single question posed to him?
Or Here is William Hendriksen on the same verse:-IV. Concerning the preaching of this redemption. Here observe.
1. To whom it was preached: To every creature under heaven, that is, it was ordered to be preached to every creature, Mark 16:15. It may be preached to every creature, for the Gospel excludes none who do not exclude themselves.
Now let’s look at the other verse in question.That Gospel, moreover, was not meant for a select few- the Colossian errorists may well have considered themselves a select set!- nor was it confined to any particular region; on the contrary, it was the Gospel which, in obedience to the Lord’s command (Matt 28:19; esp. Mark 16:15), was preached among every creature under heaven. It recognized no boundaries whether racial, national or regional. It is always the ‘whosoever believeth’ Gospel.
LOGO
Though Jesus Christ comments only on the destruction of the Temple His disciples ask Him two questions As for attempting to explain those parts of Chapter 24 that address each question I will leave that to the superb eisegesis of LOGO.
If the verse is to be taken in a crudely literal fashion, then Christ must have returned around AD 45 or 50. It certainly wouldn't have taken twelve apostles anything like 40 years to get around the towns of 1st Century Israel.
Steve
that is hard to know because you don't say how merry a time you had. But in fact I had a very merry Christmas, thank you.Hope you had as Merry a Christmas as I did Steve!
I have exactly as many people reporting Christ coming in AD 45 as you have for Him coming in AD 70; to whit, None.I think I have finally come to understand where you are coming from--You are not exactly a futurist--since you are thinking in terms of a 45 - 50 return of Christ and not a Preterist since we tie Christ's return to scripture related to 70 AD.
I understand now that you practice Steveism which is your own unique view on eschatology.
Although I would have to ask you did anybody report actually seeing Christ return in 45 - 50 AD? Do you have any biblical support for such as position?
I have exactly as many people reporting Christ coming in AD 45 as you have for Him coming in AD 70; to whit, None.
My Biblical support is much better than yours because it could not possibly take 12 Apostles as long as 40 years to get around the cities of Israel.
Now would you like to deal with the detail of my two previous posts, please? You said earlier that you could feel the love from me. What I am feeling from you is evasion.
Steve
that is hard to know because you don't say how merry a time you had. But in fact I had a very merry Christmas, thank you.
I have exactly as many people reporting Christ coming in AD 45 as you have for Him coming in AD 70; to whit, None.
My Biblical support is much better than yours because it could not possibly take 12 Apostles as long as 40 years to get around the cities of Israel.
Now would you like to deal with the detail of my two previous posts, please? You said earlier that you could feel the love from me. What I am feeling from you is evasion.
Steve
Logos 1 said:Really Steve--LOL! Do you not see that their [sic] is a difference between going through every little town and backwater of Israel and being able to take the Gospel to the major cities of the Mediterranean area.
Every creature in your book has to mean every camel, dog, and gnat, but most of us recognize it for what it is--remember when the dream turned Paul away from one city so he could go to another.
If Christ said they wouldn't go through the towns of Israel before he came that would be good enough for most believers--where do get off disputing the words of Christ
If Paul said it had been taken to the world--your want to argue with him-not me I'm just pointing it out.
This is how to be a Hyper-preterist. You take the exact opposite of what is said, and make that your argument. Did Paul say that the Gospel had been proclaimed ‘To every creature under heaven’? Well that must mean ‘The major cities of the Mediterranean.’ Did our Lord say, ‘The cities of Israel’? Well, He must have meant ‘every little town and backwater.’ Actually, no! He didn’t mean that. The Greek word for ‘city’ is polis. Its precise meaning is a town or city that is walled. Only the larger cities had a wall around them. The word for a town or village without a wall is kome. In Matt 10:11, the Lord Jesus puts the two together and distinguishes them: ‘Now, whatever city [Gk. polis] or town [Gk. kome] you enter….’ The two words also appear together in Matt 9:35; Luke 8:1, and 13:22.
So in Matt 10:23, our Lord is saying, “You will not have gone through even the larger, walled towns of Israel before I return.” If He had wanted to mention the villages and ‘backwaters’ He could easily have done so. I repeat; there is no way in the world that it would have taken the disciples forty years (AD 30-70) to ‘go through’ the larger cities of Israel. So am I really suggesting that Christ returned around AD 35? Of course not! There is a much easier and simpler explanation.
2. If you look at all the usages of ‘Israel’ in the N.T., you will see that it is never (I think) used with reference to travelling to, from or around that country. ‘Judea, ‘Gallilee’ and ‘Samaria’ are used for that (eg. Mark 10:1; Luke 4:44). ‘Israel’ usually refers to either the O.T. or the N.T. people of God. In Matt 10:23, our Lord is telling them that they and the missionaries who would come after them would scarcely finish getting around all the cities where God’s elect people dwell before He would come in glory. This interpretation is in perfect harmony with Matt 24:14, and also with what we see today. The Gospel is going out all around the world, but there are still many major cities where there are almost no Christians, let alone the country-side areas where the Gospal has never so much as been heard. There is therefore still work to be done and we can in a sense, ‘hasten’ His Coming (2Peter 3:12) by reaching out to our neighbours and supporting missionary work throughout the world.
Steve
It would be nice to get some sort of sensible reply to this from Logos, but I'm not holding my breath.
Steve
It is a remarkable thing about Hyper-pretrists that they don't like dealing with difficult issues. Tom Riddle gets all offended and refuses to carry on the debate, whle Logos 1 tries (and fails) to be funny. What they won't do is answer the question.
earlier on in this thread, I asked a question to Logos which he was most reluctant to answer, How come the Gospel had been (according to you) preached in all the Roman world ('proclaimed to every creature under heaven') by around AD 60-61, yet the Apostles hadn't finished going through all the cities in Israel by AD 70?
After asking this four or five times, I got this back:-
To which I replied:-
As I went on to point out, there are actualy two possible explanations of Matt 10:23, both of them much simpler and more credible than the Hyper-preterist one. I wrote:-
Matt 10:23. ‘For assuredly I say to you, you will not have gone through the cities [Greek polis] of Israel before the Son of Man comes.’
We have seen that it is utterly incredible that the Apostles would spend forty years and still not have reached the major settlements (‘walled cities’) of Israel. So what does the verse mean? There are two possible alternatives. Either is good. I personally favour the second, but I can well imagine that my Dispensationalist friends would prefer the first.
1. The Lord Jesus was saying that the assignment that He had given the Twelve was only a temporary one. The apostles would not get around the cities of Israel before the risen Christ would come to them with new instructions. From that time, they were to go, not just to Israel, but to the whole world (Matt 28:19; Mark 16:15; Acts 1:8 etc.).
2. If you look at all the usages of ‘Israel’ in the N.T., you will see that it is never (I think) used with reference to travelling to, from or around that country. ‘Judea, ‘Gallilee’ and ‘Samaria’ are used for that (eg. Mark 10:1; Luke 4:44). ‘Israel’ usually refers to either the O.T. or the N.T. people of God. In Matt 10:23, our Lord is telling them that they and the missionaries who would come after them would scarcely finish getting around all the cities where God’s elect people dwell before He would come in glory. This interpretation is in perfect harmony with Matt 24:14, and also with what we see today. The Gospel is going out all around the world, but there are still many major cities where there are almost no Christians, let alone the country-side areas where the Gospal has never so much as been heard. There is therefore still work to be done and we can in a sense, ‘hasten’ His Coming (2Peter 3:12) by reaching out to our neighbours and supporting missionary work throughout the world.
It would be nice to get some sort of sensible reply to this from Logos, but I'm not holding my breath.
Steve
What I would call a non-answer is what you have written above.Logos 1 said:What is so interesting here is how much time, effort, and imagination you will put into trying to deny the words of Christ and twist them into something he didn’t say.
It aligns neatly with your effort to twist an answer to your question into a non-answer.
It is a remarkable thing about Hyper-pretrists that they don't like dealing with difficult issues. Tom Riddle gets all offended and refuses to carry on the debate, whle Logos 1 tries (and fails) to be funny. What they won't do is answer the question.
...
Steve
The Christmas break is one of the few times when, being off work, I am able to give a little more attention to discussion forums. I can appreciate that this is not the case for everyone. You do however have a habit of becoming conveniently offended when you get asked searching questions so that you don't have to answer them.A quick comment here from "Tom Riddle": There are reasons why I am not writing here now, but it is not about my getting "all offended".
You may think the verse is unrelated, but perhaps others don't. There is no point in demolishing a building brick by brick, when a strategically placed stick of dynamite will bring the whole edifice down in a moment. Personally, I had neither time nor energy nor inclination to wade all through 1 Cor 13-15 when 15:20 refutes your whole argument.1. It is the fact that the points I had raised, especially in the 1st Cor. post, were never addressed, except in the usual way of "Yea, then what about this (unrelated) verse?"
I hope you're having a great time.2. I am with family, some of whom I suspect I will never see again once I leave for China. It is called "Having a life." If you had one, Martin, you would have at least considered that possibility in my case.
Well, you need to have a little patience, don't you? You need to answer the questions people ask or the points they raise, and then direct them back to what you consider to be the important point. In this thread, I asked the same question of Logos 4 or 5 times before I got something vaguely resembling an answer. That's the nature of forums like these and you have to live with it.3. Several here just don't read carefully or accurately - and then respond with irrelevant comments based on their skim-over reading.
I apologize for mis-spelling your name. If that is the worst error I make on this forum, I shall be very surprised and very grateful.Case in point here is you, Martin, not even getting my name right. If you can't even hold onto a person's name what reason do I have in extended involved conversations with you?
Martin, not even getting my name right. If you can't even hold onto a person's name what reason do I have in extended involved conversations with you?
The Christmas break is one of the few times when, being off work, I am able to give a little more attention to discussion forums. I can appreciate that this is not the case for everyone. You do however have a habit of becoming conveniently offended when you get asked searching questions so that you don't have to answer them.
You may think the verse is unrelated, but perhaps others don't. There is no point in demolishing a building brick by brick, when a strategically placed stick of dynamite will bring the whole edifice down in a moment. Personally, I had neither time nor energy nor inclination to wade all through 1 Cor 13-15 when 15:20 refutes your whole argument.
I hope you're having a great time.
Well, you need to have a little patience, don't you? You need to answer the questions people ask or the points they raise, and then direct them back to what you consider to be the important point. In this thread, I asked the same question of Logos 4 or 5 times before I got something vaguely resembling an answer. That's the nature of forums like these and you have to live with it.
I apologize for mis-spelling your name. If that is the worst error I make on this forum, I shall be very surprised and very grateful.
Steve
This problem could be resolved and we might all become hyper-preterists if someone would just provide the evidence of the visible return of Jesus Christ in 70 AD. Scripture clearly states that His return would be visible:
Acts 1:6-11
6. When they therefore were come together, they asked of him, saying, Lord, wilt thou at this time restore again the kingdom to Israel?
7. And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power.
8. But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth.
9. And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight.
10. And while they looked stedfastly toward heaven as he went up, behold, two men stood by them in white apparel;
11. Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven.
Revelation 1:7
7. Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.
I hope that you will see my point that there are different kinds of seeing in Scripture. When Jesus told Nathan that he would "see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of man" what exactly did He prophesy? What did Nathan actually see? If his seeing was anything less than a visible sight of clearly visible angels why should it seem strange to argue for seeing Christ the same way?