You showed that you try to twist the word of God because it does not fit with what your teachers taught you. You should have had only one Teacher.
Speak closer to what the Bible says. Speak closer to what others say.
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Jesus/God in Hell?
- Thread starter billwald
- Start date
It does not matter how clear or how much evidence is presented to show that YOUR INTPRETATION of 1 Peter is wrong - you will charge us with ignorance, and continue to assert your false doctrine. So what is new?
Steadfast Fred
Active Member
1 Peter 4:6 does not say that Jesus is saving people in hell. Nothing in that verse even suggests such a doctrine.
1 Peter 4:6 (KJV) For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
The Gospel was preached ... past tense
Them that are dead... present tense.
The verse does not say the Gospel is being preached to them that are dead. If it did, your interpretation of 1 Peter 4:6 would be valid.
But it does not.
What it says is that the Gospel was preached to a people who are now dead.... they died after hearing the Gospel... not before.
Ephesians 4:8 (KJV) Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
Ephesians 4:8 does not say Christ saved the lost who were in hell. Those whom Christ released from sheole were those who were resting in Abraham's bosom, not the wicked.
Psalms 37:37 (KJV) Mark the perfect man, and behold the upright: for the end of that man is peace.
38 But the transgressors shall be destroyed together: the end of the wicked shall be cut off.
There is no hope of peace for the wicked who dies and ends up in hell... none whatsoever.
1 Peter 4:6 (KJV) For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
The Gospel was preached ... past tense
Them that are dead... present tense.
The verse does not say the Gospel is being preached to them that are dead. If it did, your interpretation of 1 Peter 4:6 would be valid.
But it does not.
What it says is that the Gospel was preached to a people who are now dead.... they died after hearing the Gospel... not before.
Ephesians 4:8 (KJV) Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
Ephesians 4:8 does not say Christ saved the lost who were in hell. Those whom Christ released from sheole were those who were resting in Abraham's bosom, not the wicked.
Psalms 37:37 (KJV) Mark the perfect man, and behold the upright: for the end of that man is peace.
38 But the transgressors shall be destroyed together: the end of the wicked shall be cut off.
There is no hope of peace for the wicked who dies and ends up in hell... none whatsoever.
This comment from you was only a personal attack. Will the moderator let you get away with it?
Jesus died and went to the spirits of those who are dead.
The scripture says the GOSPEL was preached.to them that are dead.
1 Peter 4:6 For this is the reason the gospel was preached even to those who are now dead, so that they might be judged according to men in regard to the body, but live according to God in regard to the spirit.
That is false. How else do you think Jesus filled the universe?
People who died and heard the gospel in prison heard the Truth for first time; they then could live according to God in the spirit. That is what the word of God says.
No!
one MUST be saved by the Grace of God in THIS life, after death, only judgement for their sins will remain!
THAT is the bible!
Steadfast Fred
Active Member
The book of 1 Peter was written in 60 A.D., 31 years after the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ.
Peter was speaking present tense when he said 'them that are dead'.
He was speaking past tense when he said the Gospel was preached".
Your interpretation makes no sense whatsoever. In order for your interpretation to work, the verse would have to say:
1 Peter 4:6 (KJV)For for this cause is the gospel being preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
or
1 Peter 4:6 (KJV) For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that were dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
But the Word of God does not say that, does it? NO! The Apostle Peter points to the past, then to the present.
1 Peter 4:6 (KJV) For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
Peter was speaking present tense when he said 'them that are dead'.
He was speaking past tense when he said the Gospel was preached".
Your interpretation makes no sense whatsoever. In order for your interpretation to work, the verse would have to say:
1 Peter 4:6 (KJV)For for this cause is the gospel being preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
or
1 Peter 4:6 (KJV) For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that were dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
But the Word of God does not say that, does it? NO! The Apostle Peter points to the past, then to the present.
1 Peter 4:6 (KJV) For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
Last edited by a moderator:
I never said after death is not judgment. After death there is judgment does not mean Jesus did not go to the spirits in prison and preach the gospel to them so they can live according to God in the spirit. That is what the written Word of God says that Jesus did and why.
Steadfast Fred
Active Member
A long, long time ago, an Elementary school teacher taught me that the word "was" is a past tense word. I also learned that words ending in "ed" are past tense. Words like "are" and "is" are not past tense, but present tense.
Reading the Bible using these rules has helped me, and is helping me, tremendously, to understand proper context of sentences and paragraphs.
Reading the Bible using these rules has helped me, and is helping me, tremendously, to understand proper context of sentences and paragraphs.
Steadfast Fred
Active Member
So they can live according to the Word of God... in hell? You've got to be joking. There is no godly living in hell... only torment.
The gospel was preached to them that ARE dead, that is let it be known that it is about those who are dead, and not just those who are going to die.
whatever happened during that time, the Bible clearly states that there is NO second chance offerred, so MUST interprete it ina way consistant with rest of the scriptures!
A person can live according to God in the spirit in any kind of torment. Are you saying when someone gets ill or injured they are no longer able to live according to God in the spirit?
Oh, so now it is whatever happened during THAT TIME. So, it sounds as if you are willing to admit Jesus did preach the gospel to spirits in prison.
Why do you keep calling it a second chance for someone when they did NOT EVER HAVE THE FIRST CHANCE OF HEARING THE GOSPEL WHILE ALIVE ON EARTH?
whatever it means, it is NOT to be interpreted as chance after death, as there is NO other verses to even support that notion, and scriptures mustbe affirmed by 2 or 3 references!
Do you water baptism in your church for the dead, ala Mormons? that is another isolated one verse that CANNOT mean what they say, as NOT referenced in scriptures elsewhere!
In the Bible, people may have been baptized for the dead so that the dead person in whom they were baptized can either accept or reject the baptism, if they were not baptized when they were alive.
The Bible does not tell us to do baptism for the dead. Paul is explaining that if people do not believe the dead will rise again, then why baptize the dead if the dead do not rise.
Again, no way that it can mean as the Mormons hold to this, as their belief contridicts all of other scriptures!
Same way these versons cannot mean life after death, as that would contridict all other scriptures!
The Bible plainly tells us Jesus died and preached the gospel to the spirits of people who were dead.
The Mormons do not just do baptisms for the dead, they also believe that we are to give and help others; do you call those things false too?
Steadfast Fred
Active Member
No, the Bible does not use the word "were" in that verse. Why do you continue to rewrite that verse to fit your false interpretation of it?
I am speaking about what happened.
When Jesus spoke to the spirits, they were of people who were dead. They "are" dead now, and they "are" dead when Jesus speaks to them.