Whose Son is YHVH, the Christ?

[Yeshua1]

While the term “Lord” is used interchangeably to address the Title of both the Father and the Son, I am very much aware of the rendition of the Hebrew Scholars in ref. to the cited text above (Psalms 110). That's exactly why the issue has been brought forth to this thread (topic).

The questions, however, that need to be answered to prove your case… in analyzing the context of the actual text itself…. are the following.

1) Who was the actual Speaker of the cited text, ref. Psalms 110 in the Old Testament?
2) Who was the Speaker’ Lord..... referring to as… “ MY LORD” in the Old Testament?
3) When was the fulfillment of the prophetic vision took place, after Christ ressurection?

Now if you can honestly answer the questions I brought forth above correctly, then, your objection to my posts will have a basis to stand on, for a change.

However, let me warn you that only willingly ignorant will always stumble to this revelation of Biblical Truth.

:BangHead:

has jesus always existed as God, or was he created by "Big God?" you seem to imply a JW "little god/big God!"

 

[billwald]

For 2200 years The Church has confessed The Apostle's Creed. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apostles'_Creed for several English translations.


Text in Latin

Credo in Deum Patrem omnipotentem, Creatorem caeli et terrae,
et in Iesum Christum, Filium Eius unicum, Dominum nostrum,
qui conceptus est de Spiritu Sancto, natus ex Maria Virgine,
passus sub Pontio Pilato, crucifixus, mortuus, et sepultus,
descendit ad inferos, tertia die resurrexit a mortuis,
ascendit ad caelos, sedet ad dexteram Patris omnipotentis,
inde venturus est iudicare vivos et mortuos.
Credo in Spiritum Sanctum,
sanctam Ecclesiam catholicam, sanctorum communionem,
remissionem peccatorum,
carnis resurrectionem,
vitam aeternam.
Amen.[14]

 

[DHK]

For 2200 years The Church has confessed The Apostle's Creed. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apostles'_Creed for several English translations.

2,200 years?? Christianity hasn't even been around that long? Someone is giving you bogus information.

 

[Seve]

Again.......... In Matthew 22 we read the following... Inserstion are mine for presentation.

41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them,
42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The son of David.
43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
44 The LORD (?) said unto my (David’) Lord (YHVH), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?
46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.

Conclusion:
No man knows the name of the invisible Almighty God Father at this time.

First, you are wrong about your Hebrew in Psalm 110. The one David calls "my Lord" is not YHVH but Adonai. The Hebrew text reads "The LORD (YHVH) said unto my Lord (Adonai). Check it out!

While the term “Lord” is used interchangeably to address the Title of both the Father and the Son, I am very much aware of the rendition of the Hebrew Scholars in ref. to the cited text above (Psalms 110). That's exactly why the issue has been brought forth to this thread (topic).

The questions, however, that need to be answered to prove your case… in analyzing the context of the actual text itself…. are the following.

1) Who was the actual Speaker of the cited text, ref. Psalms 110 in the Old Testament?
2) Who was the Speaker’ Lord..... referring to as… “ MY LORD” in the Old Testament?
3) When was the fulfillment of the prophetic vision took place, after Christ ressurection?

Now if you can honestly answer the questions I brought forth above correctly, then, your objection to my posts will have a basis to stand on, for a change.

However, let me warn you that only willingly ignorant will always stumble to this revelation of Biblical Truth.

:BangHead:

David says that it was JHVH that is speaking and He is speaing to "my ADONAI" not to my "JHVH

.... Again, the speaker is YHVH (LORD) not Adonai ("my Lord")

Dear Readers,

Obviously, that’s another malicious vain attempt by Biblicist to cover up their flawed doctrinal understanding of the Scripture…..distorting and twisting the text in attempt to response to our simple questions above.

However, based on Biblicist own answer (see underlined quote) above, clearly……. regardless how hard he tried to twist the text to suit his likings – Biblicist is forced to admit to the fact, that the actual Speaker of the text was David himself….. telling us the story about his prophetic vision he had in the OT…… regarding the conversation that took place between the LORD and his (David’s) Lord (YHVH), accordingly – ref. Psalms 110.

As we all know, David only known Lord in the Old Testament was YHVH himself, the God of the Jews. The God of their forefathers.

As I have warned before, only willingly ignorant always stumble to this Truth. And Biblicist is a living proof of it in my view. However, I will just let the readers to be the better judge of it..... Oh well....

:BangHead:

 

[Moriah]

You have to be kidding me? You are denying the resurrection of the physical body of Christ???

Why do you speak with deceit? How is it that no flesh and blood is in heaven equals to saying the resurrection of Jesus did not happen?

What body do you think He ascended into heaven with?

The Bible says our bodies will be changed in a twinkling or the eye. The Bible says flesh and blood will not inherit the kingdom of God. The Bible says what we will be has not yet been made known. But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is. If Jesus has flesh, then we know what he looks like already! Why would Paul say we do not know what we will be? If Jesus has flesh, then why does Paul say we “shall” see him as he is?

It does not say "flesh" cannot inherit the kingdom of God BUT "flesh AND blood" cannot.

The Bible says flesh cannot inherit the kingdom of God, yet you are trying to twist the scriptures to say flesh by itself inherits the kingdom.

Do you know what the term "resurrect" means? It means to "RAISE UP" and you cannot "RAISE UP" what never WENT DOWN. What do you think happened to Christ's body in the grave? The Bible says it saw NO CORRUPTION and it was RAISED UP from the grave.

Jesus died, but his body saw no corruption, that does NOT MEAN HE DID NOT DIE.

So you think he ditched the body in the grave and it was never raised?

Just listen to the kind of spirit you have…you twist and speak in a deceitful way.

Or that he ditched the body after the resurrection and did not ascend in the body he told Thomas to stick his fingers in his wounds and stop unbelieving????????

The Bible says we will change in a twinkling of the eye. A cloud hid Jesus.
Acts 1:9 After he said this, he was taken up before their very eyes, and a cloud hid him from their sight.

The "IT" that was sown is the same "IT" raised.

The "natural" body is the predeath body that was "perishable....dishonor...weakness."

The "spiritual body is the same body "raised...imperishable...raised in glory....raised in power..."

What was RAISED if "IT" never was buried????? Paul says the "IT" that was sown is the same "IT" that is raised as YOU CANNOT RAISE A SPIRITUAL BODY BECAUSE IT CANNOT DIE!!!!!!!!

Are you saying Jesus did not have flesh and die? Furthermore, NOT the same that is buried is the same that is raised.

 

[Moriah]

Still waiting for an answer Moriah.

This is what you are waiting for an answer to, but I have already answered it. It is as if the truth must be hidden from you, for you always say I do not answer questions when I do.

Where was Jesus BEFORE God spoke? Wouldn't God have to EXIST previous to speaking Christ into existence or did Christ speak Himself into existence? Can't you see that they cannot be the same if one is the cause of the other?? The Cause must exist first or there is NOTHING to speak the Word into existence!

This is YOUR explanation so YOU EXPLAIN how they are the same and yet according to YOUR explanation one existed PRIOR to the other!

Jesus is the Word of God. The Word of God was always with God, the Word of God is God.

 

[Moriah]

So YOU say. And so do the Mormons, the J.W.'s, and many others who hold to false doctrine. False teachers always say that I hold to false beliefs. Isn't that ironic!

You tell me that I have false beliefs, isn’t that ironic? lol

Are you really going to stake your salvation on two words taken out of context in a book that is written to Christians, speaking of practical Christianity, having nothing to do with salvation.

How can you say it has nothing to do with salvation? James says can such a faith save a man? NO, SUCH A FAITH CANNOT SAVE A MAN.

You better believe it has to do with salvation.

It speaks of the result of our faith, which is works. It is speaking to Christians. And you are going to gamble eternity away on these two words not seriously considering what the rest of Scripture says. This is not only truly amazing, it is horribly sad! I fear for you.

I fear for you, for you to hinder people who search for the Truth, and to tell them they do not have the ability to obey in any way.

You keep spouting off “faith alone.” Let us listen to what was written from God.

James 2:24 You see that a person is justified by what he does and not by faith alone.

Did you see that? NOT BY FAITH ALONE.

The Bible clearly says:
Romans 5:1 Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ:
--There are no works involved here; only faith.

We are justified by faith, and with the mouth we confess AND ARE SAVED.

See Romans 10:10 For it is with your heart that you believe and are justified, and it is with your mouth that you confess and are saved.

Romans 3:28 For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from observing the law.

Here Paul explains that we are justified APART from OBERVING THE LAW. The Law that ONE HAD TO DO JUST TO BELONG TO GOD, for they HAD TO BE CIRCUMCISED, THEY HAD TO GIVE ANIMAL SACRIFICES, THEY HAD TBSERVE SPECIAL DAYS. We are justified by faith apart from observing the law…it must have been so strange to hear that since for a long time there were so many works to do, and it was God’s words He said to do them; however, now people were being taught that they did not have to do all those things. We still are not to sin! We still are to obey! We just do not HAVE TO WORK BY MAKING OURSELVES CLEAN BEFORE GOD.

Ephesians 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.
--Salvation is by grace, through faith, and is the gift of God (gifts are freely received and never worked for).

The people for a long time HAD TO WORK THEMSELVES to belong to God. THEY are the one who had to make themselves ceremonially clean, just to worship God. The Old Testament was NOT BASED ON FAITH. Galatians 3:12 The law is not based on faith;

We do not have to do that anymore, it was a command to God to do those things! Now it must be explained, the message of Jesus Christ is the good news, and that we are NOT disobeying God by not doing the works of the law when we have faith in Jesus. That does not mean we do not have to obey Jesus!

2. It is "not of works." Not of any works--OT works, NT works, good works, works of obedience--no works at all.

The Jews had the works of the law like animal sacrifices and the observance of special days JUST TO BELONG TO GOD, JUST TO WORSHIP GOD. THE JEWS COULD BOAST!

Romans 2:17 But if you bear the name "Jew " and rely upon the Law and boast in God,

The Jews were able to boast in God, for they are the ones who had the relationship with God, but it is them who had to make THEMSELVES CLEAN. Through faith in Jesus’ blood, we are now made clean.

"To believe" and "faith" are the same words. One is a verb and the other a noun. There is no difference.
To confess is an expression of that of that faith. To use language not in the Bible, when a person "trusts Christ as his savior," it is not the prayer, the actual words that saves him, it is what comes from the heart; the confession that he makes. He believes with his heart and confesses with his mouth that which he has believed. It doesn't mean it has to be a large public confession as some suppose. The Ethiopian Eunuch was alone in the desert. The thief on the cross was alone on the cross.

Are you finally admitting now that we are to confess to be saved?

I have perhaps explained this to you a dozen times now. It shows that you are unteachable. You refuse to be taught. You refuse to listen.
Once again. The Ethiopian could understand nothing of the Word of God until someone showed him and caused him to understand the Scriptures.

Ha ha ha You kept saying that Philip taught the eunuch through the Old Testament and not with the New Testament. I had to keep explaining to you that Philip taught Jesus from the New Testament that he had learned verbally before it was written down.

I always teach faith comes from hearing and being taught!

Don't go off on a red herring. You twist the Scriptures to your own destruction. All of the above Scripture is directed to Christians not to the unsaved. It is the unsaved that cannot understand the Scriptures on his own, not the saved. Read carefully again what I said. Read how the Ethiopian Eunuch got saved in the light of what you posted, and see how not one verse that you posted applies.

You are badly confused.

Our faith comes from HEARING the word, see Romans 10:14. From hearing the word and being TAUGHT, Colossians 1:5, 7. From continuing in what we have been CONVINCED of, see 2 Timothy 3:14, and being PERSUADED, 2 Corinthians 5:11. Since that is the way faith comes, it would require some understanding. We are not even to lean on our own understanding, but God will cause you to understand after you obey, see Proverbs 3:5-6.

I have explained; Biblicist has explained, so has Yahew, and many others: repentance is not "sorrow for sins." That is unbiblical poppy-cock. You can't find that definition in the Bible.

If a person repents and they were not really sorry---THEN IT WAS NOT A TRUE CONFESSION.

 

[The Biblicist]

Dear Readers,

Obviously, that’s another malicious vain attempt by Biblicist to cover up their flawed doctrinal understanding of the Scripture…..distorting and twisting the text in attempt to response to our simple questions above.

David is THE WRITER of the Psalm and as the writer he states that it is JHVH is speaking to what he idenitifies as "My ADONAI"!

However, that is NOT what you have been saying. It seems you can neither understand English nor Hebrew. You are wrong when it comes to both.

1. English - "LORD" = JHVH; "Lord" = Adonai

2. Hebrew "YHVH said to my Adonai"

David wrote this by INSPIRATION!

So stop your nonsensical assertion that the words read "my JHVH" when it does not!

 

[The Biblicist]

Why do you speak with deceit?

If ignornce is a virtue you are most virtuous.


Christ body died and was buried and so no corruption and that body which died and was buried and so no corruption WAS RAISED back to life. That body ascended into heaven and the only ones who deny that are heretics as Paul makes very clear in 1 Cor. 15:10-19. You are a heretic.

You are simply ignorant of the expression "flesh and blood." Search out the phrase and see how it is used and what it means.

Mt 16:17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

1Co 15:50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

Ga 1:16 To reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood:

Eph 6:12 For we wrestle not against flesh and blood, but against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this world, against spiritual wickedness in high places.

Heb 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;


Take a look at Galatians 1:16 which makes it clear what it means. How do you confer with LITERAL flesh and blood. A man can get shot and die and does the policeman come up and confer with his "flesh and blood" to find out how he died?????? Don't be stupid! The phrase means "NATURAL MAN" just as Paul defines it in 1 Cor. 15:

46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural;

What is a NATURAL MAN? Paul spells it out in black and white that a Natural man is a man that was:

42 So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is raised in incorruption:
43 It is sown in dishonour; it is raised in glory: it is sown in weakness; it is raised in power:
44 It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.

The resurrected body is the SAME body that was sown this way but CHANGED so that this SAME body is now RAISED

42 So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is raised in incorruption:43 It is sown in dishonour; it is raised in glory: it is sown in weakness; it is raised in power:
44 It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body.


THE NATURAL BODY is metaphorically described as "flesh and blood"

THE SPIRITUAL BODY is the SAME BODY changed as described.

Note the same "IT" that is sown is the same "IT" that is raised!



There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body. The natural goes down into the grave but IT is raised a Spiritual body because what is changed is corruption to incorruption, dishonor to glory, weakness to power - because the SIN NATURE is removed!

NATURAL BODY = "flesh and blood"

 

[Moriah]

If ignornce is a virtue you are most virtuous.

Again, you describe yourself perfectly.

Christ body died and was buried and so no corruption and that body which died and was buried and so no corruption WAS RAISED back to life.

You have no understanding. What is buried is not what is raised when we receive immortal bodies!
YOU say no corruption was raised back to life, YET YOU SAY JESUS HAS FLESH IN HEAVEN, FLESH IS CORRUPTIBLE.

You are simply ignorant of the expression "flesh and blood." Search out the phrase and see how it is used and what it means.

Mt 16:17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

1Co 15:50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

Ga 1:16 To reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood:

Eph 6:12 For we wrestle not against flesh and blood, but against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this world, against spiritual wickedness in high places.

Heb 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;

FLESH CANNOT SURVIVE WITHOUT BLOOD.
You speak of great ignorance.

Take a look at Galatians 1:16 which makes it clear what it means. How do you confer with LITERAL flesh and blood. A man can get shot and die and does the policeman come up and confer with his "flesh and blood" to find out how he died?????? Don't be stupid! The phrase means "NATURAL MAN" just as Paul defines it in 1 Cor. 15:

46 Howbeit that was not first which is spiritual, but that which is natural;

What is a NATURAL MAN? Paul spells it out in black and white that a Natural man is a man that was:

42 So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is raised in incorruption:
43 It is sown in dishonour; it is raised in glory: it is sown in weakness; it is raised in power:
44 It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.

That is at the resurrection, and those scriptures prove you wrong.

The resurrected body is the SAME body that was sown this way but CHANGED so that this SAME body is now RAISED

You just twisted yourself into contradiction. The Bible says it is NOT the same!
Is a seed that falls to the ground and dies a seed when it comes up? NO!

THE NATURAL BODY is metaphorically described as "flesh and blood"

THE SPIRITUAL BODY is the SAME BODY changed as described.

You will stick to your falseness no MATTER WHAT. What is the matter Biblicist, do you think about all those people you taught wrong? What is the matter Biblicist, are you thinking of all those years of believing and studying something and it is for nothing? Can you give up that life for the Truth? You are supposed to love the Truth more than your own life! Yet you do not want to throw away the life you have and had!

 

[DHK]

You tell me that I have false beliefs, isn’t that ironic? lol

No, it isn't ironic. It is sad. And when a person starts attacking such cardinal doctrines as the trinity and the resurrection those are the doctrines which eventually get them banned. Only true heretics deny such basic Christian doctrines. One cannot be a Christian and deny the resurrection and the trinity.
Talk about false beliefs. Yes. Do you want a list? Here it is:

1. A denial of a physical resurrection: You have a belief similar the J.W.'s "spirit resurrection," since flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God.

2 A denial of the trinity.

3. A belief that works are necessary for salvation. ("works alone" James 2)

4. A denial in the depravity of man.

5. A denial in the eternal security of the believer.

6. A denial in the necessity of a local church.

7. A denial in the Great Commission; that the Great Commission was fulfilled in the first century and is not applicable for us today.

8. A belief in entire sanctification.

That is a few just for starters. There are more. Yes, you believe in unbiblical doctrines to the point of grave heresy, heresy that says that you are outside the realm of orthodox Christianity--not a Christian at all.

How can you say it has nothing to do with salvation? James says can such a faith save a man? NO, SUCH A FAITH CANNOT SAVE A MAN.

You better believe it has to do with salvation.

The entire book is not speaking of salvation; but rather living a practical Christian life. As long as you refuse to see that you will never understand the book of James. James is speaking of a faith that produces good works.

I fear for you, for you to hinder people who search for the Truth, and to tell them they do not have the ability to obey in any way.

You keep spouting off “faith alone.” Let us listen to what was written from God.

James 2:24 You see that a person is justified by what he does and not by faith alone.

Did you see that? NOT BY FAITH ALONE.

You don't have to fear for me. I know beyond any shadow of a doubt that if I were to die right now, I would go to straight to heaven. I have that assurance. I will not lose my salvation. It is eternally secure in the hand of Christ. My salvation is by faith in Christ, who alone saves me by His Grace. I understand what James is teaching. I understand the context. I can see why an unsaved man would not understand these things.

We are justified by faith, and with the mouth we confess AND ARE SAVED.

See Romans 10:10 For it is with your heart that you believe and are justified, and it is with your mouth that you confess and are saved.

Romans 3:28 For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from observing the law.

Here Paul explains that we are justified APART from OBERVING THE LAW.

Your explanation of Romans 5:1 is pitiful.

Romans 5:1 Therefore being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ:
--Note that it starts with "therefore." That is a "connective" which connects the verse to the preceding verses in the previous chapter. That is actually where it belongs.

There is a wise saying:
Whenever you see a "therefore" or "why-fore" look before to see why for the "therefore" is there for.
Do you understand that? It means be sure of context.

Look before and see what is written:
Romans 4:21 And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.
22 And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.
23 Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him;
24 But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead;
25 Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.
--Verse 21: A definition of faith--being fully persuaded that what God had promised God would do.
Verse 22: A teaching of faith alone. By faith alone righteousness was imputed to Abraham.
Verse 23-25: Likewise to us: If we believe (faith alone) that Christ was raised up from the dead (physical resurrection), raised for our justification, then we shall be made righteous.
5:1 Therefore being justified by faith (faith alone), we have peace with God.

There is no part of this passage that refers to the OT in any way. There is no part of this passage that refers to OT law, such as circumcision or any other such work. You are reading those things into this passage.

The people for a long time HAD TO WORK THEMSELVES to belong to God. THEY are the one who had to make themselves ceremonially clean, just to worship God. The Old Testament was NOT BASED ON FAITH. Galatians 3:12 The law is not based on faith;

I quoted to you Eph.2:8,9. What is this off-the-topic Scripture that you are giving have any thing to with Eph.2:8,9? Absolutely the nothing!!

The statement is clear: For by grace are you saved through faith.
One can stop right there. All the rest of the passage is to emphasize this one truth. It does not have to do with works at all. It emphasizes this one truth! What truth?
That salvation is by faith alone in Christ alone by grace alone.
If you do not believe that one truth you cannot be saved.
Everything written after that truth is simply to emphasize that one truth.

Thus everything you have written has nothing to do with the truth of this passage.

The Jews had the works of the law like animal sacrifices and the observance of special days JUST TO BELONG TO GOD, JUST TO WORSHIP GOD. THE JEWS COULD BOAST!

Romans 2:17 But if you bear the name "Jew " and rely upon the Law and boast in God,

He is not writing to Jews; he is writing to blood-bought Christians, those who by faith alone have trusted in Christ as their Savior. Thus your explanation makes no sense.
The phrase you are trying to explain, "not of works," has nothing to do with OT observances, and there is no such reference to them. You are reading into the Scriptures and in fact, adding to them. That is something which is forbidden in the Word of God. Again, these were not Jews he is writing to, and thus your whole argument fails.

Are you finally admitting now that we are to confess to be saved?

You didn't read my post carefully. Confession is an expression of faith, and that is all. It is not a work, per se. You have a wrong definition. The Ethiopian Eunuch made no public confession. He was in a desert!

Ha ha ha You kept saying that Philip taught the eunuch through the Old Testament and not with the New Testament. I had to keep explaining to you that Philip taught Jesus from the New Testament that he had learned verbally before it was written down.

Isaiah had NT truth. He may not have understood it all, but he did understand some of it. Look at the NT truth in Isaiah:

Isaiah 1:18 Come now, and let us reason together, saith the LORD: though your sins be as scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they be red like crimson, they shall be as wool.
--Sinfulness of mankind.

Isaiah 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counseller, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
--The coming Christ, and who he is.

Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
--His virgin birth; His name meaning "God with us."

Isaiah 53:6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
--The death of Christ taking our sins, the sins of sinful man, upon himself.

Isaiah 53:9 And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth.
--The burial of Christ, and the nature of Christ--his sinlessness.

Isaiah 53:11 He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.
--The atonement. God was satisfied with His sacrifice.

What do you mean there is no gospel in Isaiah? There is plenty of NT truth and gospel in the book of Isaiah, the very book that the Eunuch was reading. That is where the Eunuch was reading from. Philip knew the gospel message. He preached it from the book of Isaiah, as the Scriptures say he did.
In this you deny the very Word of God.

I always teach faith comes from hearing and being taught!

No you don't; you teach much heresy, as I have listed near the top of this post. It is grave heresy.
[quote[You are badly confused.

Our faith comes from HEARING the word, see Romans 10:14. From hearing the word and being TAUGHT, Colossians 1:5, 7. From continuing in what we have been CONVINCED of, see 2 Timothy 3:14, and being PERSUADED, 2 Corinthians 5:11. Since that is the way faith comes, it would require some understanding. We are not even to lean on our own understanding, but God will cause you to understand after you obey, see Proverbs 3:5-6.[/quote]
Why do you continue to deny 1Cor.2:14

1 Corinthians 2:14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

The unsaved man cannot understand spiritual things. He cannot!
He must have someone to show him, and the Holy Spirit to help him.
--You are simply denying the Scriptures.

If a person repents and they were not really sorry---THEN IT WAS NOT A TRUE CONFESSION.

You have a wrong definition of repent, and won't admit it.

 

[The Biblicist]

YOU say no corruption was raised back to life, YET YOU SAY JESUS HAS FLESH IN HEAVEN, FLESH IS CORRUPTIBLE.

53 For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.


Moriah, what does Paul say puts on incorruption and immortality????

This is what occurred in the grave of Christ at his resurretion as he is the "firstborn from the dead."


The physical human body placed in the grave did not see corruption because in his resurrection it put on incorruption and the mortal body that died put on immortality. That is THE CHANGE which occurs to the body placed in the grave at the resurrection.

Paul spells out the CHANGE that occurs at the resurrection to the DEAD body placed in the grave

43 It is sown in dishonour; it is raised in glory: it is sown in weakness; it is raised in power:

The SAME "IT" that was sown in DISHONOR this same "IT" is raised in glory

The SAME "IT" that was sown in WEAKNESS this same "IT" is raised in power


44 It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.

The SAME "IT" that was sown a NATURAL BODY this same "IT" is raised a spiritual body.


Your false doctrine denies the "IT that was sown is the "IT" that is raised!

The words = "the natural body" = dishonor, weakness, corruptible = "flesh and blood" = "earthly"

The words "Spiritual body" = the body raised in honor, power, incorruption = "heavenly"


Your own body is MORE than mere "flesh and blood" but is made of bones, organs, etc. The phrase "flesh and blood" is simply summary expression to mean THE NATURAL MAN IN HIS NATURAL STATE! At the resurrection THE NATURAL MAN IN HIS NATURAL STATE is CHANGED as described above from dishonor, weakness, corruption = the natural man = flesh and blood UNTO honor, power, incorruption = the spiritual man.

 

[The Biblicist]

This is what you are waiting for an answer to, but I have already answered it. It is as if the truth must be hidden from you, for you always say I do not answer questions when I do.

Jesus is the Word of God. The Word of God was always with God, the Word of God is God.

Then why did you say God created Christ and I quote:

I know what I believe as for God creating Jesus, His visible being, His Word, then all creation created by Jesus and for Jesus.
However, I also believe that the Holy Spirit is Jesus. I believe Jesus is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, and Jesus is the Holy Spirit. - Moriah (Post #105)

 

[Yeshua1]

Dear Readers,

Obviously, that’s another malicious vain attempt by Biblicist to cover up their flawed doctrinal understanding of the Scripture…..distorting and twisting the text in attempt to response to our simple questions above.

However, based on Biblicist own answer (see underlined quote) above, clearly……. regardless how hard he tried to twist the text to suit his likings – Biblicist is forced to admit to the fact, that the actual Speaker of the text was David himself….. telling us the story about his prophetic vision he had in the OT…… regarding the conversation that took place between the LORD and his (David’s) Lord (YHVH), accordingly – ref. Psalms 110.

As we all know, David only known Lord in the Old Testament was YHVH himself, the God of the Jews. The God of their forefathers.

As I have warned before, only willingly ignorant always stumble to this Truth. And Biblicist is a living proof of it in my view. However, I will just let the readers to be the better judge of it..... Oh well....

:BangHead:

Jesus identified Himself to the Jews as being the SAME God that spoke to Moses/Abraham, the great I AM!

 

[Yeshua1]

Why do you speak with deceit? How is it that no flesh and blood is in heaven equals to saying the resurrection of Jesus did not happen?

The Bible says our bodies will be changed in a twinkling or the eye. The Bible says flesh and blood will not inherit the kingdom of God. The Bible says what we will be has not yet been made known. But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is. If Jesus has flesh, then we know what he looks like already! Why would Paul say we do not know what we will be? If Jesus has flesh, then why does Paul say we “shall” see him as he is?

The Bible says flesh cannot inherit the kingdom of God, yet you are trying to twist the scriptures to say flesh by itself inherits the kingdom.


Jesus died, but his body saw no corruption, that does NOT MEAN HE DID NOT DIE.


Just listen to the kind of spirit you have…you twist and speak in a deceitful way.


The Bible says we will change in a twinkling of the eye. A cloud hid Jesus.
Acts 1:9 After he said this, he was taken up before their very eyes, and a cloud hid him from their sight.

Are you saying Jesus did not have flesh and die? Furthermore, NOT the same that is buried is the same that is raised.

actually no "flesh and blood" will get in there....

Jesus was raised up and glorified in SAME body that He died in on the Cross!

 

[Moriah]

actually no "flesh and blood" will get in there....

Jesus was raised up and glorified in SAME body that He died in on the Cross!

Are you saying you believe as Biblisist does, that flesh can inherit the kingdom of God but not blood?

 

[Moriah]

Then why did you say God created Christ and I quote:

I know what I believe as for God creating Jesus, His visible being, His Word, then all creation created by Jesus and for Jesus.
However, I also believe that the Holy Spirit is Jesus. I believe Jesus is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, and Jesus is the Holy Spirit. - Moriah (Post #105)

God created a VISIBLE of HIMSELF.

Hebrews 1:3 The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven.

John 14:9 Jesus answered: "Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'?

Colossians 1:15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.

 

[DHK]

Are you saying you believe as Biblisist does, that flesh can inherit the kingdom of God but not blood?

John 20:27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
--His body was physical. It could be touched. His wounds could be seen. This was after the resurrection.

John 21:13 Jesus then cometh, and taketh bread, and giveth them, and fish likewise.
Luke 24:30 And it came to pass, as he sat at meat with them, he took bread, and blessed it, and brake, and gave to them.

Luke 24:41 And while they yet believed not for joy, and wondered, he said unto them, Have ye here any meat?
42 And they gave him a piece of a broiled fish, and of an honeycomb.
43 And he took it, and did eat before them.
--His digestive system was working. A spirit doesn't have one. He could eat and drink. This is in his physical resurrection body, that same body which is now in heaven.

BTW, it does not say that flesh cannot ENTER the kingdom of heaven.

 

[Moriah]

53 For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.


Moriah, what does Paul say puts on incorruption and immortality????

This is what occurred in the grave of Christ at his resurretion as he is the "firstborn from the dead."

Paul says it is a mystery what Jesus looks like…therefore, if people saw him, then how is it a mystery?!

The physical human body placed in the grave did not see corruption because in his resurrection it put on incorruption and the mortal body that died put on immortality.

But that scripture is about OUR bodies too, even if we do not die before the time of the resurrection after Jesus comes.

That is THE CHANGE which occurs to the body placed in the grave at the resurrection.

People who do NOT EVER DIE, they too will be raised incorruptible when Jesus comes, yet they will have not ever died!

Paul spells out the CHANGE that occurs at the resurrection to the DEAD body placed in the grave

43 It is sown in dishonour; it is raised in glory: it is sown in weakness; it is raised in power:

The SAME "IT" that was sown in DISHONOR this same "IT" is raised in glory

The SAME "IT" that was sown in WEAKNESS this same "IT" is raised in power


44 It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body.

The SAME "IT" that was sown a NATURAL BODY this same "IT" is raised a spiritual body.


Your false doctrine denies the "IT that was sown is the "IT" that is raised!

The words = "the natural body" = dishonor, weakness, corruptible = "flesh and blood" = "earthly"

You say Jesus kept the flesh, the flesh part, the part that ages and corrupts.

Your own body is MORE than mere "flesh and blood" but is made of bones, organs, etc. The phrase "flesh and blood" is simply summary expression to mean THE NATURAL MAN IN HIS NATURAL STATE! At the resurrection THE NATURAL MAN IN HIS NATURAL STATE is CHANGED as described above from dishonor, weakness, corruption = the natural man = flesh and blood UNTO honor, power, incorruption = the spiritual man.

Biblicist,
When you plant a seed of something, let us say of wheat, do you think a seed comes up out of the ground? NO. When you plant a seed of something…something comes up that looks nothing like what died and buried in the ground.
1 Corinthians 15:37
When you sow, you do not plant the body that will be, but just a seed, perhaps of wheat or of something else.
1 Corinthians 15:38
But God gives it a body as he has determined, and to each kind of seed he gives its own body.

 

[Moriah]

John 20:27
BTW, it does not say that flesh cannot ENTER the kingdom of heaven.

1 Corinthians 15:50 I declare to you, brothers, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable.