If Paul had mentioned the completed New Testament somewhere in the same context as the word "perfection," then this would strengthen the argument that the word "perfection" refers to the completed New Testament. However, Paul did not mention the New Testament at all in the context of 1 Corinthians 13:10. Paul never said anything about that.No, they are "sign gifts," the sign of an apostle.
They were only used by some in the ministry during the first century when revelation was not complete, when that which is perfect or complete (was not yet come) which is the Word of God, then that which is in part (tongues, prophecy, revelatory knowledge) was done away. It was not needed any longer. By the time the last apostle died (John) at the end of the first century, the canon of Scripture was complete (made perfect), and those revelatory gifts were not needed any more--the ones mentioned in 1Cor.13:.
For example, every book of the New Testament written by Paul was a letter to a particular church, or to believers in a particular city, or to specific individuals. He always referred to his letters as "letters," not as new books of Scripture. Here are all of the places in e completed New Testament in the entire book of 1 Corinthians. In fact, Paul never mentioned a "New Testament" or a new set of Scriptures in any of his letters!
1 Corinthians 5:9, 2 Corinthians 7:8, 10:9-11, Colossians 4:16, 1 Thessalonians 5:27, 2 Thessalonians 2:15, 3:14, 17. Paul never referred to his letters as new books of Scripture, nor did he ever describe anyone else's writings as being new books of Scripture. Certainly Paul's letters are inspired Scripture, but the point is that Paul never made any kind of reference to a "New Testament" or a new set of Scriptures. We have no Scriptural evidence for taking Paul's vague statement, "when perfection comes, the imperfect disappears," as being a reference to the completed New Testament because Paul never mentioned such a thing as a "New Testament." In fact, after Paul died, roughly 75 years went by before anyone even tried to formally put together a new set of Scriptures, which we now call "the New Testament" (The History of Christianity, Dr. Tim Dowley, p.106). This makes it even less likely that Paul had such a thing in mind in 1 Corinthians 13:10.
You do not describe the tongues in the Bible...it is a language! But not a learned language!Tongues was a language, an actual language, a foreign language that others in a foreign nation would understand. The proper application of this in today's culture would be that those who would have the gift would not have to study a foreign language in order to be a missionary to a foreign nation. But that doesn't happen. It did happen to Paul--many times.
He said: "I thank God that I speak in tongues more than you all."
1. It was an actual foreign language. "How hear we every man in our own language."
2. It was given as a means of revelation before the NT was complete.
3. It was given as a sign to the apostles that the apostles were genuine messengers of God, and that their message was genuine. (2Cor.12:12; Heb.2:3,4)
4. It was given as a sign to the Jews. (1Cor.12:21,22)
They were temporary and ceased at the end of the first century.
Can you give any evidence that Biblical tongues is being spoken today. Remember it is a gift, a spiritual gift. There would be evidence today if some had this gift today.