Baptism in the Holy Spirit

[plain_n_simple]

The God that you are portraying is weak, anemic, feeble, and less than God.
He was only a man, and not fully God according to you. He needed to be "filled with the Holy Spirit," according to a previous post, inferring that he was not fully God, that he was lacking in deity.
Christ is God. Never forget that!

Jesus laid down His Godly authority to become like us. Then at the start of His ministry, He was anointed by the Holy Spirit with power. He said that He did not do the miracles but God did. Then when He ascended, He said all power and authority was given to Him, and likewise He passes the work to us, healing the sick, raising the dead, preaching the Gospel, in His name. Anything less is carnal.

 

[awaken]

The God that you are portraying is weak, anemic, feeble, and less than God.
He was only a man, and not fully God according to you. He needed to be "filled with the Holy Spirit," according to a previous post, inferring that he was not fully God, that he was lacking in deity.
Christ is God. Never forget that!

Did God annoint Jesus with power?

 

[awaken]

You are the one who has an interpretation, an erroneous, occult-based one that is only 113 years old. It did not exist before then. I have given you what the scriptures teach in context, and the church has understood that fact since the first century NT church.

Your occult teaching divides Christians into two classes: those who are in unbelief and thus spiritually inferior, who have not been baptized with the HS, who do not have the power of the Spirit or the manifestation of the HS in their lives, contrasted with those who have achieved a higher spiritual plane by seeking and experiencing a supposed HS baptism apart from conversion and being given tongues and a private prayer language. This is absolutely not taught in scripture; it is a doctrine of demons.

Again! I have peace about what I believe! I hope someday you will too!

 

[DHK]

Did God annoint Jesus with power?

Did God anoint God? No.
Christ never gave up his deity! He is and always was God. He is God in the flesh. He did not need to be anointed. He is God. He had "the Spirit without measure." He is God.

John the Baptist said:
John 3:34 For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.
--He didn't have to be given the Holy Spirit. He is God.

In the same chapter we read:
John 3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
--Here Christ declares his omnipresence to Nicodemus. He is in heaven at the same time that he is on earth.

 

[awaken]

Did God anoint God? No.
Christ never gave up his deity! He is and always was God. He is God in the flesh. He did not need to be anointed. He is God. He had "the Spirit without measure." He is God.

John the Baptist said:
John 3:34 For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.
--He didn't have to be given the Holy Spirit. He is God.

In the same chapter we read:
John 3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
--Here Christ declares his omnipresence to Nicodemus. He is in heaven at the same time that he is on earth.

So how do you explain...


"You know what has happened throughout Judea, beginning in Galilee after the baptism that John preached-- how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and power, and how he went around doing good and healing all who were under the power of the devil, because God was with him." (Acts 10:37-38)

 

[plain_n_simple]

So how do you explain...


"You know what has happened throughout Judea, beginning in Galilee after the baptism that John preached-- how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and power, and how he went around doing good and healing all who were under the power of the devil, because God was with him." (Acts 10:37-38)

I am VERY interested on the twisted response to this!

 

[Thomas Helwys]

Again! I have peace about what I believe! I hope someday you will too!

Oh, I have peace, and it is a peace based on the Gospel, not on an experience inspired by the occult and thus counterfeit.

 

[plain_n_simple]

Did God anoint God? No. Christ never gave up his deity! He is and always was God. He is God in the flesh. He did not need to be anointed. He is God. He had "the Spirit without measure." He is God.

"You know what has happened throughout Judea, beginning in Galilee after the baptism that John preached-- how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and power, and how he went around doing good and healing all who were under the power of the devil, because God was with him." (Acts 10:37-38)

 

[saturneptune]

Oh, I have peace, and it is a peace based on the Gospel, not on an experience inspired by the occult and thus counterfeit.

Amen

Here is a reasonable explanation of why tongues and prophecy have ceased based on Scrpiture I made in another section.

"Why are you worried about a cannon when it is obvioius from Scripture that tongues have ceased? How many times have we been over this?

“whether there are prophecies, they will fail; whether there are tongues, they will cease; whether there is knowledge, it will vanish away” (1 Cor. 13:8).

Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 13:8-12—

“Love never fails. But whether there are prophecies, they will fail; whether there are tongues, they will cease; whether there is knowledge, it will vanish away. For we know in part and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away.

“When I was a child, I spoke as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child; but when I became a man, I put away childish things. For now we see in a mirror, dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part, but then I shall know just as I also am known.”

To repeat what has been said numerous times, the gifts of tongues and prophecy were active during the entire book of Acts. During the book of Acts, Paul wrote these letters:

1. Galatians

2. & 3. The Thessalonian letters

4. & 5. The Corinthian letters

6. Romans

It was revealed to Paul that tongues would CEASE when he wrote 1 Cor. Here are the books he wrote after the time of Acts.

The 4 Prison Epistles:

7. Ephesians

8. Colossians

9. Philemon

10. Philippians

Then the 3 Pastoral Epistles:

11. Titus

12. 1 Timothy

13. 2 Timothy

Not one time in those books is tongues or prophecy mentioned. It is kind of obvious when and why they ceased.

So why is it this becomes a recurring posting of yours? Why are you a Baptist and not a Pentecostal, charasmatic, SDA, or Holiness type?

Also, if you ever paid attention to Corinthians, even if tongues did exist today, Paul said he would rather speak a few intelligble words to the congregation than a thousand words in tongues.

Also, if you pray in tongues, one can only assume God answers in tongues. Is the answer interpreted and given to the local church in an edifying manner as Scrpiture requires? For about the tenth time, you never did give an account of an example of that three step process.

So what is the purpose of praying in tongues that have ceased? Is God unable to understand English?

Just wondering, does praying in the closet overcome all the unScriptural things about the practice?"

 

[plain_n_simple]

"But when that which is perfect has come," is NOT referring to the bible.

 

[awaken]

Amen

Here is a reasonable explanation of why tongues and prophecy have ceased based on Scrpiture I made in another section.

"Why are you worried about a cannon when it is obvioius from Scripture that tongues have ceased? How many times have we been over this?

“whether there are prophecies, they will fail; whether there are tongues, they will cease; whether there is knowledge, it will vanish away” (1 Cor. 13:8).

Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians 13:8-12—

“Love never fails. But whether there are prophecies, they will fail; whether there are tongues, they will cease; whether there is knowledge, it will vanish away. For we know in part and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away.

“When I was a child, I spoke as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child; but when I became a man, I put away childish things. For now we see in a mirror, dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part, but then I shall know just as I also am known.”

To repeat what has been said numerous times, the gifts of tongues and prophecy were active during the entire book of Acts. During the book of Acts, Paul wrote these letters:

1. Galatians

2. & 3. The Thessalonian letters

4. & 5. The Corinthian letters

6. Romans

It was revealed to Paul that tongues would CEASE when he wrote 1 Cor. Here are the books he wrote after the time of Acts.

The 4 Prison Epistles:

7. Ephesians

8. Colossians

9. Philemon

10. Philippians

Then the 3 Pastoral Epistles:

11. Titus

12. 1 Timothy

13. 2 Timothy

Not one time in those books is tongues or prophecy mentioned. It is kind of obvious when and why they ceased.

So why is it this becomes a recurring posting of yours? Why are you a Baptist and not a Pentecostal, charasmatic, SDA, or Holiness type?

Also, if you ever paid attention to Corinthians, even if tongues did exist today, Paul said he would rather speak a few intelligble words to the congregation than a thousand words in tongues.

Also, if you pray in tongues, one can only assume God answers in tongues. Is the answer interpreted and given to the local church in an edifying manner as Scrpiture requires? For about the tenth time, you never did give an account of an example of that three step process.

So what is the purpose of praying in tongues that have ceased? Is God unable to understand English?

Just wondering, does praying in the closet overcome all the unScriptural things about the practice?"

1 Corinthians 1:4-8 and 1 Cor. 13:8-13 teach that the gifts of the Spirit and the supernatual works of God will continue until the second coming of Jesus Christ. Acts 2:38-39 tells us that the Holy Spirit is God's promise to every believer.

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

1 Corinthians 1:4-8 and 1 Cor. 13:8-13 teach that the gifts of the Spirit and the supernatual works of God will continue until the second coming of Jesus Christ. Acts 2:38-39 tells us that the Holy Spirit is God's promise to every believer.

To every believer, is what you say. Believe what you say; not every tongue you hear claiming the Holy Spirit is God's promise to him.

 

[DHK]

So how do you explain...


"You know what has happened throughout Judea, beginning in Galilee after the baptism that John preached-- how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and power, and how he went around doing good and healing all who were under the power of the devil, because God was with him." (Acts 10:37-38)

The term used here is "Jesus of Nazareth," not "the Lord Jesus Christ," and thus referring to his humanity and not his deity.
Consider what Jamieson, Faucett and Brown say:

38. Now God anointed Jesus of Nazareth--rather, "Jesus of Nazareth (as the burden of that 'published word'), how God anointed Him."
with the Holy Ghost and with power--that is, at His baptism, thus visibly proclaiming Him MESSIAH, "the Lord's Christ." See Lu 4:18-21. For it is not His unction for personal holiness at His incarnation that is referred to--as many of the Fathers and some moderns take it--but His investiture with the insignia of the Messianic office, in which He presented Himself after His baptism to the acceptance of the people.
went about doing good--holding up the beneficent character of all His miracles, which was their predicted character (Isa 35:5-6, &c.).

As you can also see it was a fulfillment of prophecy which Peter is also pointing out in his sermon to the Gentiles.

 

[awaken]

To every believer, is what you say. Believe what you say; not every tongue you hear claiming the Holy Spirit is God's promise to him.

WHAT????? :BangHead:

 

[awaken]

The term used here is "Jesus of Nazareth," not "the Lord Jesus Christ," and thus referring to his humanity and not his deity.
Consider what Jamieson, Faucett and Brown say:

As you can also see it was a fulfillment of prophecy which Peter is also pointing out in his sermon to the Gentiles.

What does that prove? He stil annointed Jesus!
So is this saying that the human side of Jesus had to be annointed?
I do not understand your point!!

 

[DHK]

What does that prove? He stil annointed Jesus!
So is this saying that the human side of Jesus had to be annointed?
I do not understand your point!!

He was not anointed in the sense that he needed to be filled with the Holy Spirit. That is heresy. The word "anointed" simply means "to set apart," "to consecrate." From his baptism onward he was publicly set apart for his ministry. Publicly the Father put his approval upon him. There was no anointing of the Holy Spirit in your definition of the Word. To say that he needed to be filled with the Holy Spirit is heresy. God is always filled with the Holy Spirit. Christ is God.

 

[awaken]

He was not anointed in the sense that he needed to be filled with the Holy Spirit. That is heresy. The word "anointed" simply means "to set apart," "to consecrate." From his baptism onward he was publicly set apart for his ministry. Publicly the Father put his approval upon him. There was no anointing of the Holy Spirit in your definition of the Word. To say that he needed to be filled with the Holy Spirit is heresy. God is always filled with the Holy Spirit. Christ is God.

Yes! He was annointed when the Holy Spirit came upon him in the form of a dove and God's voice confirmed Christ as his son!
So you are saying the annointing on a person is different than what Jesus went through?

 

[DHK]

Yes! He was annointed when the Holy Spirit came upon him in the form of a dove and God's voice confirmed Christ as his son!
So you are saying the annointing on a person is different than what Jesus went through?

Anointed in what sense? He was symbolically set apart so that all would know that this was the formal beginning of his ministry on earth.

 

[DHK]

Yes! He was annointed when the Holy Spirit came upon him in the form of a dove and God's voice confirmed Christ as his son!
So you are saying the annointing on a person is different than what Jesus went through?

Different anointings?
Ask your Charismatic friends.
"OH, yes I have received the holy anointing of God," and then begins to roll down the aisle of the church, barks like a dog, hisses like a snake, and then stands and shouts at the top of his voice Hallelujah!!! Yep, that is the anointing according to them. Have you received "that anointing." Do a search on the "Vineyard Church".

Read this man's testimony:
http://www.deceptioninthechurch.com/cultsandcharismatic.html

 

[plain_n_simple]

"God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and power" This anointing gave power. Only a snake with no integrity to admit he is wrong would twist this for his own carnal view.