So you believe sin is like material substance that can be poured into a box? You first define the flesh/dust as something that can fill a box and then claim that sin is something derived from material substance - the flesh. Sin is not material substance, neither it is derived from material substance (flesh). It is a product of the "spirit" as sin is spiritually derived not materialisticly derived. Note that Paul contrasts the "law of sin" to the "law of God" which he says is "spiritual" (Rom. 7:14).
"the law of sin" is not material in substance but spirit in substance. Satan works from the outside in with regard to saints. He uses the natural cravings of the flesh. Remember, even Paul's physical problem was described as a "messenger of Satan." Sin has to do with the "intent" of the heart. Hence, the make up of man is more complex than one might think.
I don't think I would say that sin is a substance, per se. Sin is a behavioral issue, a thought issue, and rebellion issue, for sure. But sin is also a disease. Why do you think Jesus came healing, and equated being healed with being forgiven? Also, by His stripes we are healed.
Scripture portrays sin as a disease from which we need to be healed. Washed, cleansed, purified, are all pictures of removing a substance. But that also might be as close as God could get to our futile understanding. Can you put disease and infection in a box? I don't have the foggiest idea about that.
I agree that our makeup is complex, so is the issue of sin
It is the "spirit" that needs to be born again but if your theory was correct there would be no need for the "spirit" to be born again as it comes clean from God at birth.
Being born again is a matter of both spirit and body - palingenesia - Titus 3:5 the washing of regeneration, referring to our spirit. Matt 19:28-29 "in the regeneration" is when Christ returns, which is when we will be raised physically.
Your view is not David's or Job's view of sin or of a baby in relationship to sin. Sin has to do with "intent" or "motive" first and foremost. A baby is "self-centered" in regard to intent/motive and continues that way even to death apart from new birth and it is not a developmental consequence of mind at any stage of development.
Psalm 51:5 says that David was brought forth in iniquity and conceived in sin, What part of a baby is conceived? The body. He's in the midst of confessing his sinfulness of actions based on something he saw with his eyes
Psalm 139:13-16 says David was fearfully and wonderfully made. Where? In his mother's womb. How do these two scriptures jibe? Simple
The physical body is conceived in corruption, coming from Adam.
But God breathes into this corrupted flesh a sinless spirit. David is speaking of his unformed substance - his spirit (verse 16)
But, as Isaiah said, we all, like sheep, have gone astray. Paul said in Romans 1:18-25 that they knew God, but acknowledged him
no longer. Professing to be wise, they
became fools. The
exchanged the glory of the incorruptible God for an image. They
became futile in their speculations.
Verses 24 & 26 tell us the result of this exchange - God gave them over to a reprobate mind. This exchange happens when a child grown into adulthood and goes his OWN way and becomes sinful in his spirit - just like Adam and Eve did. And we can see this every single day.
There comes a time in each person's life that he no longer considers right and wrong from an outward perspective. No longer are mom and dad going to tell me what to do. No longer does God determine what is right and wrong, I will.
This is what Adam and Eve experienced - they ate the fruit, which gave them knowledge of good and evil, and that is what corrupted them. God gave them over to a reprobate mind
Your logic that argues that simply because the "spirit" comes from God must mean it is sinless is irrational as the Bible also attributes the forming of the material substance in the womb by God as well. Physical life comes from God, the selection of the right egg containing the right formulation of DNA and the right sperm containing the right formulation of DNA is an act of God. Therefore, the body is as much from God as the spirit. However, the sinful nature is passed down through the father in regard to both material and immaterial depraved "spirit" which must be born again. The body/material is contaminated from the "spirit" not vice versa. That is true with Adam, he died SPIRIURALLY first, then the material substance was effected. Likewise, infants come with an sinful "spirit" which is why their material substance suffers physical death, because death already resides in their "spirit". That is why the "spirit" must be born of God FIRST and glorification comes SECOND. Your theory reverses this order.
When Adam sinned the whole human race sinned, as the whole of human nature (body, soul, and spirit) acted as one person and thus death entered into the world by one man and death by the sin of one man.
I don't believe your view can be substantiated in scripture. Hence, no scriptures quoted
That sin/death has been passed through the father to father. That is why Jesus had no physical father, and that is why no sin could be found "in" him.
Jesus had no earthly father because He is the SON (heir) of God. He received no inheritance form and earthly father, His inheritance comes form God. He did receive a corrupted physical body, just like us. He was made like us in all things (Heb 2:14, Rom 8:3).
A sinless Spirit, inside a corrupted tent
Paul's argument is clear in Romans 5:14-15. There is universal death between Adam and Moses but No universal Law existed between Adam to Moses EXCEPT the law in Genesis 2:17 which all mankind violated in Adam. That is why infants suffer death. They had NO INDIVIDUAL sin, therefore their death is not a violation of conscience (as Arminians argue) but their death can only be attributed to the UNION OF NATURE in one man that acted together as one man in violating Genesis 2:17 and so that is the basis for Romans 5:16-19 - "by one man many" (1) are condemned; (2) be dead; (3) sinned.
Romans 5 is speaking of physical death only. Compare what Paul wrote there, to what he wrote in 1Cor 15 - in Adam all die, in Christ all will be made alive
Why do you think there is a ring of universalism in Romans 5:18-19? Because physical death and physical resurrection are universal. Every person ever born will die (except those who will be changed at Christ's appearing). Every person who has ever died physically will be raised (John 5:28-29)
