OldRegular
Well-Known Member
It is explained in the text: eating and drinking is placing faith in Christ's death. The problem is that seclude a portion of text and read into it what you want. You care the determiner if truth instead of Scripture.
I asked for a literal interpretation consistent with the dispensational insistence on literal interpretation of all Scripture!. You fail! But try again. I will highlight the significant part!
You tell me how you apply a literal interpretation to the following passage of Scripture and I will explain the two witnesses to you!
John 6:48-59
48. I am that bread of life.
49. Your fathers did eat manna in the wilderness, and are dead.
50. This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.
51. I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
52. The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?
53. Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.
54. Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.
55. For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed.
56. He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him.]
57. As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me.
58. This is that bread which came down from heaven: not as your fathers did eat manna, and are dead: he that eateth of this bread shall live for ever.
59. These things said he in the synagogue, as he taught in Capernaum.
Now the Roman Catholics do interpret this passage literally and get strongly condemned for doing so. I would appreciate if you would remain true to the dispensational hermeneutic in interpreting this passage!