Featured For the grace of God has appeared that offers salvation to all people

Right

 

Which translation is that? Not your own, by any chance, is it?

 

Where is God's love? It is seen in that He chose to save some. Your thoughts above lead to a logical conclusion that God must save all and/or love all for His love to be genuine. That's an incomplete and inaccurate theological conclusion; God hates the wicked; Psalm 11:5 and His wrath abides on the lost; John 3:36; Eph. 2:1-3.

The above is almost pretty good, but the truth of the matter is that God does choose unconditionally to save the elect not based upon anything they've ever done, whether good or evil; 1 Timothy 1:12-17; Romans 9:11-16.

No matter what they've believed, said, or have done they will be saved; John 6:37.

Why do you you strive against truth GISMYS15? 2 Corinthians 13:8. May God answer the prayer of Eph. 1 in you!

 

Well first of all, bringing salvation is not at all the same as offering it.
Secondly, are you aware that Calvinists believe absolutely in the free tender of salvation to all? Have you never read any of Spurgeon's sermons where he pleads with sinners to trust in Christ?
Thirdly, do you really think that we have never read the Scriptures you have quoted? Do you really think we would say, "Golly! I never knew that was in the Bible!"

 

Look at how the Calvinist Paul spoke of it;
11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,

12 Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world;

13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;

14 Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works

 

The author has been banned.

 

What about the millions who never heard the gospel? Generations upon generations of people lived and died without being "offered" salvation. How do you say then that God wants all men to be saved?

 

Maybe if you read this it will clear up your misconception?... You could give it a try... What ya say?... It's on the internet and it's free!... Brother Glen

God’s Operations
of Grace But No
Offers of Grace
TO WHICH ARE ADDED TWO TREATISES ON INVITING
AND EXHORTING SINNERS TO COME TO CHRIST
Wherein the doctrines of Invitations and Offers are Stated and
Compared with the Glory of Free Grace
By Joseph Hussey
Cambridge, England (1659-1726)
ABRIDGED EDITION

 

Er.......I don't think Joseph Hussey is the best example of a Calvinist you could find. He was more than a little bit hyper. Stick with Spurgeon:

 

Spurgeon is good too!... Brother Glen

 

This is the correct version of Titus 2:11 from the King James and the word offering is nowhere to be found, "11 For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men," (Titus 2:11). The sure effect of the cause of grace of God on an individual is that it "bringeth salatvation", yet we know not "all men" have salvation, therefore one must conclude the "all men" is actually all of the elect throughout the world. The cause and effect relationship seen in this verse between grace and salvation actually disproves your assertion of universal atonement.

 

Sure, God's grace (unmerited favor) has been offered to all people.
And God sees whose hearts are acceptable to proceed further, i.e.
He doesn't waste His time with those whose hearts He sees
as being hopeless.
And His grace continues with those who are obedient to His wishes.
Today's idea of grace is incorrect ...
it has nothing to do with a free ride to heaven!
God's grace is simply the chance to get to be with Him in heaven.
Check the condition of today's Laodicean church ... it's in Revelation 3.
Corrupt, ridiculous, disgusting.
But, you can get with God's program ... it's not too late!

 

When God checks the condition of men's hearts what does he see? "The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked: who can know it?' (Jeremiah 17:9) and "And God saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually" (Genesis 16:5). As far as I know, everyone receives the same nature and heart that they inherit from their father Adam who fell into sin and is the father of us all as were in him genetically during the fall, this is why scripture declares plainly, "They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one" (Romans 3:12). The solution? God is in the business of giving heart transplants. "And I will give them one heart, and I will put a new spirit within you; and I will take the stony heart out of their flesh, and will give them an heart of flesh:" (Ezekiel 11:19). Notice God does this on his own, man's will is nowhere found in the passage.


Also, the word "offered" in regards to salvation is not in the Bible, nor is the word "invitation", and when the word "accept" is used only referring to Jesus accepting his elect based on His work, not us accepting Him, "To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved" (Ephesians 1:6) Indeed the salvation of the Bible is contrary to that which natural man has invented to glorify human will and the flesh.

 

Yes God wills that NONE perish but that ALL would come to repentance. (2 Peter 3:9)
1 Timothy 1:15- Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners....
1 Timothy 2:6- Who gave himself a ransom for ALL...
1 Timothy 4:10- ..we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of ALL men, specially of those that believe.

 

This verse you quoted must be interpreted in the light of the whole Bible. Was "all" here meaning all human being who ever lived? If so, the Bible is then full of contradictions because Peter tells us earlier in his writings of men , " which stumble at the word, being disobedient: whereunto also they were appointed" (1 Peter 2:8), Paul tells us of, "21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonor?22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction", Job tells us of the wicked who are " reserved to the day of destruction? they shall be brought forth to the day of wrath." (Job 21:3), and finally Proverbs declares, ,"The Lord hath made all things for himself: yea, even the wicked for the day of evil" (Proverbs 16:4). Therefore, in view of these passages and others elsewhere throughout the Bible Peter must mean when h e says "God wills that none perish" that none of the elect perish. Further, if one were to argue that he meant all men, not just the elect, how does this square with the verse in Ephesians that says, "according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will:" (Ephesians 1:11)? If God works everything after the counsel of "his own will" and His will was that none in history perish, but some do, then Ephesians 1:11 would be false as it didn't work out as God planned it in 2: Peter 3:9 to save everyone. This is another reason your interpretation falls short of the actual meaning of the passage.