Had the Lord Jesus not been obedient to the Commandments, would He still have been obedient to the Father?On the other hand, your basis is not the faithful obedience of Christ to the Father but Jesus' obedience to the Ten Commandments
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Had the Lord Jesus not been obedient to the Commandments, would He still have been obedient to the Father?On the other hand, your basis is not the faithful obedience of Christ to the Father but Jesus' obedience to the Ten Commandments
Not any more than we can disobey God's commands yet be obedient to God.Had the Lord Jesus not been obedient to the Commandments, would He still have been obedient to the Father?
What a silly question.Which of the Ten Commandments do you think he did not obey?
wonder why he said that?You need to start making some kind of reasonable attempt at spelling things correctly.
The point is that you are making a false dichotomy between God and His law. I have already explained that Christ is where the law was always pointing, so I know that it was |ALWAYS ALWAYS ALWAYS about Christ. But Christ must succeed where Adam failed. Adam broke the commandment of God; Christ must keep them, every last one of them in order to be the Last Adam. It is in this way that He fulfils the law and obeys the Father.What a silly question.
I say that Jesus fulfilled the Law because he is righteous, you say Jesus obeyed the Ten Commandments to be righteous... And you ask me which commandment Jesus did not obey???
Do you understand what Jesus means when he said that he came to "fulfill" the Law? He means that the Law is about him. It was ALWAYS ALWAYS ALWAYS about Christ - NEVER about getting men to Heaven by obeying the Ten Commandments, but always about God and His glory.
It's not a false dichotomy. It is the dichotomy Jesus spoke to the Pharisees. Love God and you fulfill theThe point is that you are making a false dichotomy between God and His law. I have already explained that Christ is where the law was always pointing, so I know that it was |ALWAYS ALWAYS ALWAYS about Christ. But Christ must succeed where Adam failed. Adam broke the commandment of God; Christ must keep them, every last one of them in order to be the Last Adam. It is in this way that He fulfils the law and obeys the Father.
No, it is not a false dichotomy at all. It is, in fact, one that Jesus pointed out repeatedly to the Pharisees.The point is that you are making a false dichotomy between God and His law. I have already explained that Christ is where the law was always pointing, so I know that it was |ALWAYS ALWAYS ALWAYS about Christ. But Christ must succeed where Adam failed. Adam broke the commandment of God; Christ must keep them, every last one of them in order to be the Last Adam. It is in this way that He fulfils the law and obeys the Father.
Then our disagreement is more of definition than substance. You have been saying that the issue is submission or rebellion against the law but I have been taking your meaning to be the Mosaic Law. I have been saying that it is not a moral issue based on the Law (thinking Mosaic Law) but an issue of covenant obedience (meaning obedient submission or willful rebellion against God's will).
Unless you are saying that Jesus came to obey the Ten Commandments so that God could attribute that to us then I believe we agree for the most part. I believe that Jesus submitting to God's will (entirely) not only fulfilled the Mosaic Law but also also God's law (moral, covenant, all revelation and will of God) as a whole.
Do you accept the view tat God imputed the rightiousness of Christ life of always keeping the Law of God, or obedience in His entire life to the father, to us now? Declaring that we are ones who kept the Law now fully?Not the Reformers. The traditional definition of Christ’s obedience is both active and passive obedience (the obedientia active and obedientia passive). This is not obeying the Ten Commandments in order that this be imputed to man. Instead the active obedience includes the life of Christ from his birth to his passion (especially Christ’s ministry where he acted sinlessly and in perfect obedience to the will of God). The passive obedience refers to Christ’s passion, which Jesus accepted passively and without resistance, again in submission to God’s will as he suffered the cross for the satisfaction of our sins. These two are not separated, but the distinctions are noted. Christ suffered the consequences of the Law and he fulfilled the requirements of perfect obedience to the Law throughout the course of his life and ministry. Upon this basis (Christ’s submission in obedience to God’s will, both actively and passively), believers are not only forgiven but they are regarded as righteous and heirs by virtue of their participation in the complete righteousness of Christ under the law of God.
Within Reformed Theology this topic has been debated, largely on exactly what is reckoned to the believer. To what extent is this attributed righteousness obedientia active and to what extend is it obedientia passive. Luther seems to have leaned towards passive obedience while Calvin seems to have leaned towards (if not specifically arrived at) active obedience. But even with Calvin (and it is debatable to what extent he moved from passive obedience) this was the active ministry of Christ (and obedience to God’s law) in the Son’s submission to the Father (what you are rejecting).
In other words, while your view is not traditionally the view of the Reformers or of Calvinists, I do understand how it could be viewed as a "hyper" or neo-Calvinistic view as it denies obedientia passive all together and restricts obedientia active to Christ's obedience to the Ten Commandments. On the other hand, your basis is not the faithful obedience of Christ to the Father but Jesus' obedience to the Ten Commandments, so I am not sure that it can even truly be considered a hyper view of Calvinism either.
Are you saying "Calvinist" or "Reformed"? One is more narrow than the other.Do you accept the view tat God imputed the rightiousness of Christ life of always keeping the Law of God, or obedience in His entire life to the father, to us now? Declaring that we are ones who kept the Law now fully?
And calvinist/reformed would hold to the Penal substutionary atonement view I do, so would not be either Neo/Hyper cal!
First off, happy anniversary. We will be celebrating 38 in June, so we're just behind you.God's law is an entirely a moral issue whether it takes the form of the ten commandments, civil, ceremonial, conscience,or a specific command (Gen.2:17) or in a covenant framework as it is one and the same bottom line issue at all times and in all places and that is the issue of who is God - my will or thy will. God's will is law and God's will is always at all times the expression of his moral faculty = His heart. However, all the law of God in its entirety could be summarized in one word "love" and that one word could summarize the whole of God's moral being - God IS love. Hence, it is not a matter of WHICH law, but the entirety of God's Law/will is a direct revelation of his moral faculty - His heart - and ALL the law has only ONE bottom line issue - do you love God or self, Is God God or is it you, Is it His will or is it your will? Is it God's Rule or is it Self-rule. This is entirely and totally an issue of morality as it is wholly and entirely an issue of THE HEART and the heart ALONE.
Israel at the time of Christ believed one must be an israelite to be saved (through circumcision) BECAUSE Israel alone was given the Law and the prophets - the whole revealed will of God which they believed eternal life was ultimately obtained by keeping His revealed will = justification by works on judgment day.
They defined the law EXTERNALLY and therefore defined sin EXTERNALLY thus outside were as "whited suplcheres) but inwardly full of dead men bones. The Pharisees threatened other Jews with Gehenna for disobedience to the Law proving they did not believe just being a Jew was equal to salvation, but justification or inheriting eternal life was due to "good works" or doing 'the works of the law."
When the Lawyer and rich young ruler fielded their question about inheriting eternal life unto Jesus they were expecting confirmation by Christ that they were worthy already to inherit eternal life because in the Jewish mind they were already doing all that was required to inherit enternal life - in their minds they were keeping the law, just as Paul thought he had been doing prior to his salvation (Philip. 3:1-7).
My wife and I are away from home on our 43rd honeymoon and her birthday and so I have not been able to respond till now and I won't be able to respond again until we get back home this weekend.
Calvinist, as I would hold to that view on sotierology, but not whole Covenant theology system...Are you saying "Calvinist" or "Reformed"? One is more narrow than the other.
Jesus is a sin offering, not a guilt offering, correct?First off, happy anniversary. We will be celebrating 38 in June, so we're just behind you.
Insofar as my position, I do not think that I can be swayed to view righteousness in terms of moral obedience as opposed to moral obedience being the fruit of righteousness.
Maybe it is that we understand differently, from a different angle. Perhaps you simply possess superior comprehension skills (I never claimed to be the sharpest student). More likely it is a combination of the two. But as it stands, my hope is that we have communicated our positions adequately that we can see both where we agree and disagree.
Jesus is a sin offering, not a guilt offering, correct?
Thanks, so Jesus was both guilt and sin offering?But the LORD was pleased To crush Him, putting Him to grief; If He would render Himself as a guilt offering, He will see His offspring, He will prolong His days, And the good pleasure of the LORD will prosper in His hand. Isaiah 53:10 (NASB)
From my understanding, the sin offering is directed towards the sinfulness of man (our "sin nature", or inclination towards the flesh) where as the "guilt" or "trespass" offering is for those sins that are committed (the fruits of that sinful nature).Thanks, so Jesus was both guilt and sin offering?
He was still God in human flersh, sinless humaity nature, so would he not always be odedient to God, and so His death as sin offering/bearer was him taking on our sins, able to be worthy due to breaking no L:aw, and being God and an?From my understanding, the sin offering is directed towards the sinfulness of man (our "sin nature", or inclination towards the flesh) where as the "guilt" or "trespass" offering is for those sins that are committed (the fruits of that sinful nature).
Sin offering is general. It is for "sin", not for a specific transgression (i.e., breaking the Law). "If the anointed priest sins, bringing guilt on the people, then let him offer to the Lord for his sin which he has sinned a young bull without blemish as a sin offering" Lev. 4:3. The representative (the priest) sins, and guilt is brought upon the people. This is general (no specific sin, and the people are guilty because of their representative - not that they themselves violated a command).
The "guilt" or "transgression offering" is different. "If a person sins in hearing the utterance of an oath, and is a witness, whether he has seen or known of the matter—if he does not tell it, he bears guilt." This pattern continues: "Or if a person touches any unclean thing"; "Or if he touches human uncleanness"...ect. "And it shall be, when he is guilty in any of these matters, that he shall confess that he has sinned in that thing."(Lev 5:1).
This offering is not generalized.
In relation to our conversation here, and those definitions, you lean more to Christ being a guilt offering for the transgressions of the elect. Some lean towards Christ being a sin offering for sin in general (our sinful nature). I believe that Jesus is both a sin offering and a guilt offering (that the entire Law points to Christ and his fulfillment of the Law).
That is our biggest disagreement here. I believe that Jesus' righteousness includes both aspects (a moral aspect based on our behavior in transgressing God's law, but also an ontological aspect that the Law serves to illustrate - we, in our beings, fall short of the glory of God, and our sins are manifestations of our sinfulness). I believe imputed righteousness includes both our "Sin" (our sinful nature) and our sins (disobedience to God's command as a product of our sinful nature).
So....I believe that Christ came as man, remained faithful to God, reliant on the Holy Spirit, trusting God, and seeking God's will rather than his human desires. The fruit of this "walking in the Light" is obedience to God's laws.
We have to be careful here unless we get a picture that Jesus was not indeed man. He was no more human than human, and no less God than God.He was still God in human flersh, sinless humaity nature, so would he not always be odedient to God, and so His death as sin offering/bearer was him taking on our sins, able to be worthy due to breaking no L:aw, and being God and an?
The Lord Jesus fulfils all the offerings: He is the burnt offering, the grain offering, the peace offering, the sin offering, the trespass offering, the Yom Kippur, the red heifer, the turtle doves, the two pigeons and any other offerings you can think of. "These are [the Scriptures] that testify of Me" (John 5:39).Thanks, so Jesus was both guilt and sin offering?
Amen!! I add that the Law as a whole testifies to Jesus - the Ten Commandments and the commandments and statutes of His law, the Bronze Altar, the Laver, all point to Christ. The Ark, the Exodus, Moses, and Joshua point to Christ. Creation itself points to Christ, through Whom and for Whom all things are made.The Lord Jesus fulfils all the offerings: He is the burnt offering, the grain offering, the peace offering, the sin offering, the trespass offering, the Yom Kippur, the red heifer, the turtle doves, the two pigeons and any other offerings you can think of. "These are [the Scriptures] that testify of Me" (John 5:39).
Jesus accepted to becoming Human, God Incarnted, and that was what was limiting Him... He was God in human flesh, so why did he need to have the Holy Spiit empowering Him? If it wasin order to do miracles an iter things, He till as different in hat then you or me, snce he had a sinless nature and was fully God? Think his humblingwas not in His life on earth, but in accepting to being Incarnated itself!We have to be careful here unless we get a picture that Jesus was not indeed man. He was no more human than human, and no less God than God.
My point is that we do not lack the power to obey God, but the will (borrowing from Jonathan Edwards). Jesus submitted to the Father. All He did was through the Spirit (not of His own accord but the will of the Father through the power of the Spirit). All this time I am sure that He was tempted by the desires of the flesh. In the wilderness, I am sure he was hungry and thirsty.
In Paul tells us, in Philippians, why the Father glorified the Son. The Son did not regard equality with God a "thing to be grasped" - sound familiar (think about Adam's temptation) - but "humbled himself and became obedient" even to the death of the cross. Jesus was glorified for submitting to the Father through the Spirit. His ministry was not His but the Father's through the Spirit.
This is why I believe that Christ fulfilled not only the guilt/transgression offering but also the sin offering.