Jesus Christ: The Atonement For The Human Race

But theology often clouds what the Bible actually teaches and causes more confusion than helping us understand Bible Doctrine

 

Verse 26 of Romans 3 expands on verse 25, "It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus"

The sacrifice of Jesus Christ only became "effective" in the sinner, when they had faith in Jesus, being born-again.

 

But that meaning is not what the definitions in the languages say, though I have seen this in theology. Theology often distorts what the Bible is actually trying to say!

 

This might be true in some English dictionaries, but as we know the Bible was not written in English. I am yet to see any standard Hebrew or Greek lexicon defining it as "harmony" or "at one". If you know of any, please quote them

“theol.) (a.) The influence or effects of the death of Christ in appeasing the divine Justice, and conciliating the divine favor, (b.) That which propitiates; atonement or atoning sacrifice.” (Webster’s Complete Dictionary)

“Propitiation, appeasement, atonement” (Oxford English Dictionary)

 

ca you quote one English translation, which uses the word "reconcile" at either Romans 3:25, or 1 John 2:2, 4:10?

 

well, it can't be the fault with what the Bible says? ALL "theology" is man-made, supposed to be from the Bible

 

I thought you said that you take "atonement" and "reconcile" as the same thing? In which case surely the English versions would have used the latter?

 

Hi Jon, I think that you are not getting what I mean.

In #38 I asked you, "do you understand both "atonement" and "reconciliation" as the same thing?", and in #41 you replied yes.

My point is this. when the Apostles John used "ἱλασμός" in 1 John 2:2, 4:10, which has been translated, "propitiation"; and Paul in Romans 3:25 uses the Greek, "ἱλαστήριος", where it is also rendered "propitiation". Why did not any serious English version render either Greek word by "reconcile", if this is what it means? I am aware that the so called "Jubilee Bible", uses "reconciliation" in each place, but this is hardly a translation that is serious for any study.

 

I understand that part. What I am getting at, is the fact that the greater majority (except 1 or maybe 2) of English versions do not use the English word "reconciliation" at either Romans 3:25, or 1 John 2:2, 4:10. If this Greek is equivalent as you say the English is, then surely these places would have translated by "reconciliation". So, 1 John 2:2, would read, "He is the reconciliation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world", etc.

Do you know of any Hebrew or Greek lexicon or dictionary that renders ἱλαστήριος, ἱλασμός, or כִּפֻּר, etc, by "reconciliation"?

 

Oxford English Multi-Volume Dictionary



Webster’s Complete English Dictionary



Samuel Johnson English Dictionary

 

But aren't you saying that "atonement" equates to "reconciliation"?