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Was It Possible For Jesus To Sin?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by tyndale1946, Jul 5, 2018.

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  1. HeirofSalvation

    HeirofSalvation Well-Known Member
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    It has nothing to do with "examples" it has to do with what constitutes sin.
    James makes it clear what happens in the course of the commission of sin

    Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:
    But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
    Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.

    The idea that Christ never looked at a beautiful woman and was tempted, or something that he liked or wanted and was tempted is unbiblical.
    It is when we choose to stare at and entertain lustful thoughts that we cross the line.
    I see beautiful women or things I like every day....I usually (by God's grace) soon catch my wondering eyes and look away and think about my loving wonderful wife.

    For a brief moment, I am truly tempted to harbor lust or perhaps covet something else that I am drawn to.
    That is NOT sin.
    To allow a lust to conceive and harbor it is to sin.

    Potiphar's wife was no doubt a looker, and it likely didn't escape the perfectly 20/20 vision of Joseph.
    He CHOSE not to harbor lustful thoughts and thus avoided sin...
    That statement is a simple circularity.
    How about (rather than the odd request for an "example") the blatantly obvious Bible testimony that he did?

    Heb. 4:15
    For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
    Of course he did.
    When his brother was cheating at Candy Land he wanted very much to knock his teeth out.
    His fingers involuntarily curled up into a balled-up fist and he clenched his teeth.
    He chose, however, to set aside his lust for vengeance and left judgement up to his Father, and did not respond with malice or violence.
    He then lovingly reminded his brother of the Torah and probably quoted it masterfully for his age (but perhaps not perfectly) because he had to grow in wisdom and knowledge and was not omniscient as a 7-year-old as his B-average in Algebra demonstrated; although he never gave into sloth (which he often very much wanted to, and his brother quite often did as his brother's mere C- average in Algebra proved).

    When working with Joseph, he had to be reminded several times to "measure twice, cut once" as some of his errant measurements resulted in bad cuts before he learned to get it right.

    Jesus was a human.
    He was tempted just like you and I.
    To "want to sin" is called being "tempted". (this happened to Jesus all the time)
    To give in to temptation is to sin. (this NEVER happened)
    It may be o.k. to argue for impeccability, as some fine Christians are here doing.
    But to argue that he was never even tempted (as you appear to) is to deny the clear teaching of Scripture and is pure unadulterated Docetism, which is to be anathematized.
     
  2. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    One who is merely human yes, but not one who is also fully God!
     
  3. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Garbage!

    The master deceiver failed in tempting Christ!

    Do you think mere human distractions would have achieved what that father of all liars could not?

    Christ is aware of all things and thinking. The Scriptures have absolutely no account that Christ was "tempted" from the view of inner struggle or combat, but was "tempted" as one experiences the force of evil pressing to do wrong. Often called "peer pressure" for the father of all liars considered himself to be superior to the Christ and able to offer and pressure to accept what was offered.

    Again there is absolutely no Scripture indication that the Lord Jesus Christ had even the slightest inclination to respond to "temptation" much less to be prone to lust of the eyes, lust of the flesh or even the pride of life as you presented.
     
  4. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Unlike us, there was nothing in Jesus that would have submitted to sinning!
     
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  5. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    You are going in a circle. If one can not sin, one is not fully human.
     
  6. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    he was fully human, and also fully God!
     
  7. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Not true.

    Adam, prior to the fall, had no inner capacity impressing him to sin.

    He chose to sin, and therefore became a sinner. He suffered death to the nature of innocence and fellowship with God.

    The second Adam had no inner capacity impressing him to sin, and when given the opportunity and choice did not respond to the outward pressure and enticements.

    When pressured to sin, when enticed to sin, the Lord Jesus Christ had no inner fallen nature in which He had to combat the impulse to do wrong. He succeeded where the first Adam failed.

    Fully human does not mean that one must also have the fallen nature of the human condition. Such thinking is attempting to place Christ into a fallen estate which is incorrect.

    Fully human means that he lived and breathed as a human, as the second Adam prior to the fall, not as Adam the human after the fall.
     
  8. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Jesus was like us, in human flesh, but not in the same state as we are, as not one with a sin nature!
     
  9. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    That is blasphemy! God the Father has no physical, human body so obviously that physical, human body cannot die.

    To suggest that God the Father has a physical, human body is to accept the vile heresy of Mormonism which teaches that God the Father is just a Mormon boy from another planet who made good and is up on his heavenly planet having relations with his multiple wives and begetting little spirit babies to be put in physical bodies down on earth.
     
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  10. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    On those points, we fully agree.
    NOTHING I have said in any way puts Christ in a fallen state. There are two threads running on this subject. I have been consistent in both that Jesus was the second Adam and that He had no sin nature.
     
  11. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    And the third point would be that it is impossible for God to sin...
     
  12. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    The same faulty line of logic also holds it is impossible for God to die.
     
  13. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    It is, as when Jesus died, it was just his flesh, the physical human form that did, as God was still living!
     
  14. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    Just as Jesus flesh was free to sin independently of His divinity.
     
  15. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    he can not do anything independently of his natures, as he is One Person, who has dual natures, separate, but neither one ever able to be "put aside"
     
  16. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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  17. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    You again have His omniscient divine nature "learning".
     
  18. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Nope, the humanity of Jesus learned/was taught the same way any Human would be!
     
  19. Reynolds

    Reynolds Well-Known Member
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    Now you are again separating the humanity and Divinity. Make up your mind.
    The humanity can learn, but the divinity can't.
    The humanity can die, but the divinity can't.
    It is impossible for the humanity to sin because of the divinity?
    You have got to ride one horse or the other.
     
  20. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Very simple, Jesus as to being fully God, NOTHING changed in regards to Him as in Deity, but in his humanity, did learn and grow!
     
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