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You win.

I'll stick to what I have, you use whatever you want. I appreciate your efforts to convince me, but this subject was decided about 2 decades ago for me.




Je suis fini.
May God bless you greatly.

 

It's nothing to do with the manuscripts; it's a translational issue. It is the question of how to translate kapeleuo, which appears to have both the meaning of 'peddle' or to 'corrupt' or 'adulterate.' The NKJV margin has 'adulterate for gain.' Vine's Dictionary seems to support 'peddle.' 'Those to whom the apostle refers in 2:17 are such as make merchandise of souls through covetousness (cf. Titus 1:11; 2 Peter 2:3, 14-15; Jude 11:16; Ezekiel 13:19); accordingly, "hucksterizing" would be the most appropriate rendering.' Whether @John of Japan can add anything, I don't know.

 

The word is heavily associated with retailers and the abuse selling.

The TDNT (abridged) says..
:καπηλεύω kapēleúō [to peddle, trade] 1. The Greek Usage. This word means 'to engage in retail trade' and carries a nuance of trickery and avarice. In philosophy it denotes the selling of teaching for money."

The EDNT says...
καπηλεύω kapēleuō trade with; sell, offer for sale* 2 Cor 2:17: οὐ . . . καπηλεύοντες τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ. The vb. (from κάπηλος, "tradesman") plays a role in Greek polemic against the Sophists, which criticizes the marketing of spiritual and intellectual goods for profit and is concerned less with "adulteration" (Luther) than the gaining of a profit. BAGD s.v.; R. Bultmann, 2 Cor [Eng. tr., 1985) ad loc.; S. Hafemann, Suffering and the Spirit (WUNT 2/19, 1986) 103-76; Spicq, Notes I, 403-

The BDAG also supports this...
"trade in, peddle, huckster"

2 Cor. 2:17 is about people "peddling" Gods word for profit. Martin's conclusion is certainly correct. It seems the KJV has a "corrupt" rendering

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It's not a manuscript problem. There is a difference in the mss in this verse, but it invovles "many/the rest," not "corrupt/peddle."

As for translating, I go with "huckstering." The Greek word referred to a wine seller secretly diluting and then misrepresenting his product so he could sell more. The meaning for me is that Paul opposed using the Word of God to make money (other than the freewill gifts and/or salary from God's people).

Concerning the KJV, remember that we are reading 1611 English. The KJV translators rendered the Greek word correctly. The word "corrupt" in 1611 could actually deal with huckstering, with diluting wine. Here's proof: https://quod.lib.umich.edu/cgi/m/mec/med-idx?type=id&id=MED9845

 

I note a discussion here on "word for word." I would like to input that this term is so argued and bandied about that unless you define it, no one knows what you mean, so the two sides are talking past each other. On the "thought for thought" side it is often ridiculed (without definition), but on the "word for word" side it is also misunderstood (cf the lousy book by H. D. Williams--not a translator, not a linguist, but he wrote extensively from his ignorance: Word-For-Word Translating of the Received Texts).

Carry on--after you define your terms.

 

ALL 3 translations are saying basically the very same thing!

 

I would tend to see this formal translation, who try to brig over into the English transaltion as strict a word for word equivalent as in possible, but would still have some passages done in a more informal, dynamic way Dynamic translations to me would be those who seek to translation the thought patteren of process into the English, and tries to get the intended meaning into contemporary ways of describing it.

 

too bad, as both are excellent for use!

 

I still do not see the big difference betyween the Nas/Nkjv versions on this passage, and the Kjv, as our brother does!

 

I use both, heaviky, when i taught classes.

 

I use the Nas/Esv/194 Niv