You have got to be kidding! Where did you study Greek? Joe's bar and Geek School?The neuter part refers to "that which".
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You have got to be kidding! Where did you study Greek? Joe's bar and Geek School?The neuter part refers to "that which".
Yes, Joe's Bar and Greek school. τὸ τέλειον --So, help me out then--instead of making fun of me--the Article "τὸ" refers to "That which" and the adjective is τέλειον--"perfect". What is "that" and what is "perfect"?You have got to be kidding! Where did you study Greek? Joe's bar and Geek School?
Paul is expressing a principle (when the perfect comes that which is in part ceases) pointing to the superiority of love (which never fails).So, in another thread, @1689Dave submitted that "that which is perfect..." is the Bible. And because he believes that Paul is referencing the bible, that is his conclusion: Perfect = Bible. Yes, we know the Bible is complete/perfect. But the Question remains, however, is that what Paul is referencing here? Could it be Christ, the eternal state, God's Love, the complete state of glorified man, etc?
Regardless of whether you are cessationist, how do we breakdown Paul's intended meaning of the passage using exegesis? What is the context? How do we come about a particular conclusion regarding the following passage:
8 Love never fails. But whether there are prophecies, they will fail; whether there are tongues, they will cease; whether there is knowledge, it will vanish away. 9 For we know in part and we prophesy in part. 10 But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away.
11 When I was a child, I spoke as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child; but when I became a man, I put away childish things. 12 For now we see in a mirror, dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part, but then I shall know just as I also am known.
13 And now abide faith, hope, love, these three; but the greatest of these is love
Chapter 14
Pursue love, and desire spiritual gifts, but especially that you may prophesy.
And in light of that, what are some conclusions we can draw from this passage?
Yes, it's obvious that Paul is talking about love. That is probably why the chapter is called "The Love Chapter."Paul is expressing a principle (when the perfect comes that which is in part ceases) pointing to the superiority of love (which never fails).
Paul is not talking about the canon, or the gift of tongues or prophesy. Paul is not talking about "sign gifts". Paul is talking about love.
Paul is talking about love by pointing out the incomplete nature of the things he lists (the sign gifts the Corinthians were bragging about). Those things are temporary and will be put away (like an adult puts away things of a child). He is speaking of love's superiority because love is not temporary (like those incomplete things which will end).Yes, it's obvious that Paul is talking about love. That is probably why the chapter is called "The Love Chapter."
But Paul CANNOT be referring to "love" when he says "when the complete comes the partial will be done away."
Love (αγαπη) is a feminine noun and does not agree in case, number, and gender with "partial" (μερους) which is a neuter noun, as is "complete" (τελειον) a neuter adjective.
Context is your friend. All of chapter 12 is about spiritual gifts and their misuse by the church at Corinth.
He tells them to lay aside the things of childhood and become mature believers. Their favorite toys will go away, and only faith, hope, and love will remain. And the best of the three is love (verse 13), which sacrifices self for the service of others, unlike their abuse of the spiritual gifts to brag to others about how gifted their were.
And he tells them in 12:31 "I want you to desire the best gifts. So I will show you a much better way." Then all of chapter 13 is the "much better way." Better than the gifts the Corinthians had been bragging about and abusing, which would soon pass away.
Yeah, that's what I said. But the point remains, the sign/confirmatory gifts ended.Paul is talking about love by pointing out the incomplete nature of the things he lists (the sign gifts the Corinthians were bragging about). Those things are temporary and will be put away (like an adult puts away things of a child). He is speaking of love's superiority because love is not temporary (like those incomplete things which will end).
Regardless to the validity of your conclusions concerning sign/confirmatory gifts (whether they have ended) your point has absolutely nothing to do with the passage in question. Paul is not pointing to an end of these gifts but to their temporary nature and this to expound on love.Yeah, that's what I said. But the point remains, the sign/confirmatory gifts ended.
Good grief, Jon! Grab a dictionary and look up "temporary." It means "gonna end." Paul establishes the FACT that the miraculous sign/confirmatory gifts are temporary. They will end. Verses 9, 10, and 13 give us the time line for that ending.Regardless to the validity of your conclusions concerning sign/confirmatory gifts (whether they have ended) your point has absolutely nothing to do with the passage in question. Paul is not pointing to an end of these gifts but to their temporary nature and this to expound on love.
Yeah. That's what I just said. Paul tells us that love, unlike the "sign gifts", never fails. Love is not temporary. Sign gifts will end. Love will not.Good grief, Jon! Grab a dictionary and look up "temporary." It means "gonna end." Paul establishes the FACT that the miraculous sign/confirmatory gifts are temporary. They will end. Verses 9, 10, and 13 give us the time line for that ending.
But the Greek grammar of versees 9 and 10 does support the point, as does verse 13.We can read our ideas into this and say this means sign gifts ended by the time Paul authored Corinthians, or when the Bible was compiled, or when Christ comes (depending on what we want to ascribe to "perfect"), but the fact remains this is not really supported by Paul's words here. His point is that, unlike the gifts the Corinthians looked to, love is superior.
Paul was saying tongues shall cease. And we will know in full, and see clearly. You.are missing the point that we agree on the grammar. We agree that sign gifts, a less than perfect understanding,.... and even a less than perfect us....are all temporary. This will cease. For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. But love endures.But the Greek grammar of versees 9 and 10 does support the point, as does verse 13.
If Paul was not talking about the ending of the gifts he would not have said "tongues shall cease" and "knowledge shall vanish away." But he did say those things and you have to deal with them.
We can't just throw it all out because somebody might be offended.
Yes, i'm tracking you. We are making improper conclusions about side issues because the only real issue Paul is addressing is Love, that it will never cease. To make a definitive conclusion about gifts was not Paul's intention (except for the fact that they will one day cease). To make a leap in logic to say they will cease when the bible is complete would be violating exegetical principles.Paul was saying tongues shall cease. And we will know in full, and see clearly. You.are missing the point that we agree on the grammar. We agree that sign gifts, a less than perfect understanding,.... and even a less than perfect us....are all temporary. This will cease. For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known. But love endures.
My point is that you are reading into the passage to support your conclusions that sign gifts have ceased because you believe their purpose was to bridge that gap (to confirm) which is no longer needed.
Even if you are correct that these gifts have ceased your utilization of this passage as evidence is just as much error as me claiming the passage proves I now understand perfectly because imperfect understanding is temporary.
Paul's statement is that these gifts are temporary - which he seems to take as already understood by the Corinthians. This is NOT a lesson on sign gifts or partial understanding but a lesson on love.
Context, brother. Context.
There is the problem! You completely missed the point!My point is that you are reading into the passage to support your conclusions that sign gifts have ceased because you believe their purpose was to bridge that gap (to confirm) which is no longer needed.
And again you miss the point!Even if you are correct that these gifts have ceased your utilization of this passage as evidence is just as much error as me claiming the passage proves I now understand perfectly because imperfect understanding is temporary.
Half right. "These gifts are temporary." Correct. "This is NOT a lesson on sign gifts." Wrong. It is a lesson on all the gifts. The synecdoche we see in verse 8 referring back to the gifts mentioned in verses 1 - 8, followed by the inclusion of the remaining gifts in verse 13.Paul's statement is that these gifts are temporary - which he seems to take as already understood by the Corinthians. This is NOT a lesson on sign gifts or partial understanding but a lesson on love.
Yes. Context. Read the immediately preceding context of chapter 12. "Now concerning spiritual gifts, brethren, I would not have you ignorant." There is your context, John. Spiritual gifts. And not being ignorant of the facts concerning spiritual gifts.Context, brother. Context.
Exactly.I Cor 13 is in the context of gifts.
Right on the money.Paul is showing which gifts are better to strive for.
Exactly.The reason for being better is because some are only temporary while others are permanent.
Yes.The question is when will the partial cease.
"Perfect" and "partial" are both neuter noun/adjectives. And so is "bible."Scripture says when the perfect has come. Some say it is the Bible
"Christ" is masculine. Can't refer to Him. Case, number, and gender don't match.others say it is Christ
Remember, the book of James is probably the oldest of the New Testament writings. Paul was probably familiar with James and probably had the following in mind when he penned 1 Corinthians.I do not think it is scripture because even with scripture we do not know as we are known.
"Christ" is masculine. Can't refer to Him. Case, number, and gender don't match.
"Coming" (παρουσια) is feminine.It can refer to His coming rather than the person of Christ.