The Chalcedonian Creed: Fact, Fiction, or Something Between?

Ultimately you are extending “nature” beyond the Scripture.

For example, in the garden, the expression of Will in Christ’s statement was not human will but that of Christ. Just as the Holy Spirit has a will to travel as it desires, so too does the Son and Father.

Christ’s statement was the expression of divinity to divinity, not human will to divinty.

Such is also the case of believer advocacy found in 1 John. The Lord Jesus expresses divine will to the Father’s divine will.

Second is the matter of who prays to whom.
The Lord Jesus was in total divine communication and communion with the Father. This is seen when the Father is heard responding to the son.
Even at the tomb of Lazarus, the Lord openly prays to the father but states such was not really necessary, “Father, I thank you that you have heard me. 42I knew that you always hear me, but I said this on account of the people standing around, that they may believe that you sent me.”

The words “you always hear me...” mean complete and communication and communion.

The Son did not initiate prayer to the Father, the lines were two directional, “... what I say the Father has told me to say....”

Third, you post about the Spirit driving (impelling) Him into the wilderness. This is statement is found in Marks account. Using it to show authority over Spirit was limited until after the ascension.

This is most weak in support. Because the trinity’s Communication remains unobstructed it is not for any parson of the trinity to order any other part around.

Jesus addressed the issue of the Spirit in discussion with Nicodemus.

By stating the limitation is part of human comprehension, He was not stating He had no authority or understanding.

We differ, I suppose in the extension of the word “nature” to mean that which is not found in Scripture

I find that the body of Christ, that covering was as our covering is (according to Paul) an enclosure that will be put off for a better at death, because we are a new creation.

I find the Scripture support Christ had a body, just like our body. It was not anything more or less then 100% human construction. I do not find the Scriptures separating the body from Christ. Those who desire to separate the “nature” into what is human and what is Devine obliterate the Union. The Christ was a union and must not ever be considered in parts. Just as you are in union and fully responsible for your health and actions, so was the Christ. 100% union of 100% human body and 100% Word.

You point that God cannot hunger, but that is unsupported by Scripture.

Psalm 40 states, “If I were hungry, I would not tell you,
for the world and its fullness are... ”

It is not given to the understanding of humans nor for our determination the determination of when God is hungry.

The verse does not state God does not hunger, but that if He were hungry, He wouldn’t let us know.

What we do know is there is a feast in heaven that will take place with the redeemed. Why such if there was no desire for both celebration and communion as our Lord stated. That He is even now in fasting from the bread and cup, does not support a lack of hunger.

The manna came from heaven, did it not?

The balance of Scriptures do not support the popular myth that God does not hunger.

But then, too, some actually contend God is above all expressions and desires and needs. Yet, the image of Him as Adam displayed, disputes such myth.

 

Can you explain the differences between the three Persons?

 

God the Son, yes!

 

JonC seems to be confused as to how we are to understand just what the hypostatis aspect of Jesus is to be understand in the light of the scriptures!

 

Who was born of the woman Mary, by which he inherited his humanity and His nature from int eh incarnation, but was conceived by the Virgin birth, and thus did NOT have the sin natures humanity, but the sinless humanity of Adam before he fell!

 

Jesus needs to have both natures in order to be fully God and also fully Man!

 

When jesus died, God tha Ftaher did not die, nor the Holy Spirit, and the Father was the One to whom Jesus appeased/propiated his wrath , correct?

 

You deny that we are all born as sinners, and that Jesus would have been a sinner unless he had the Virgin Birth?

 

The challenge in this statement is that it would seem if God is only knowable through Christ then how did Abraham know God? How did anyone know God before the incarnation? God’s word, in this case, the Old Testament, was God’s self-revelation to His people. Is that discounted? Or is it better to say that Christ is the full and final revelation of God?

The Archangel



Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk

 

The scriptures are the written revelation from God to us, and Jesus is the living revelation of God to us, but both are equally valid, for Jesus speaks to us throughout the entire bible itself...

 

But the only way we know Christ is through God’s word.

The Archangel


Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk

 

Yes, as while Jesus indeed reveals God to us, as He was God in a human body, the only way we can know of Him is thru the scriptures, and by the Holy Spirit quickening/enabling us to really see Jesus!

 

No, just that there existed God outside of Jesus Himself, Persons called the Father and the Holy Spirit!
Jesus was and is one of the Godhead, but not all of the Godhead was in Him!

 

Yes, but unless the Holy Spirit enables a sinner to really know who this Jesus was and is of the Bible...