Futurists cannot prove their assertions.

The point is that the text does not say that ! Read the text. What is causing distress all over the world or the "nations" are the signs in the heavens and what is coming upon earth. Rome always started upheavals but the text is not speaking of generalities that characterize Rome's history. You are continuing to offer nothing burgers. Jesus is not speaking about the general history of Rome but he is referring to a specific point in time "then" or at that point where "men" (not Jews, not Romans) but "men" making up these "nations" which cover the earth are in heart attack mode due to these signs at this specific point in time - what point in time? When Christ comes "in the clouds" (just as he left - Acts 1:11).

I could quote you a ton of false interpretations drawn from uninspired people throughout history!!! Yours is just another false interpretation simply because it cannot stand up to the plain language of the text.

Jesus is not speaking about a prolonged history of the Roman upheavals but speaking of specific signs at a specific point in time ("then") that ushers in the coming of Christ "in a cloud" that "they" ("nations....men") SEE!
Here is where your theory and interpretation self-destruct because "men" and "nations" where not present to "SEE" the destruction of Jerusalem. What "men" and "nations" SEE is the visible personal coming of Christ - so much for your false theory.

Your interepretation insults common sense and sound exegesis. Is this all I have???? Your theory simply fails as the men and nations or the Roman Empire was not present in Jerusalem to "see" this judgement upon Jerusalem but they will "see" Christ coming in the clouds and that is precisely what Jesus is saying these signs are ushering in - not some localized judgement but universal judgement so that all can see ("nations....men") these signs but "see" Christ himself coming in the clouds - these contextual facts obliterate your view.

 

No problem, apologies accepted. I am more of a historical premillenialist.

 

20 ¶ And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh.
21 Then let them which are in Judaea flee to the mountains; and let them which are in the midst of it depart out; and let not them that are in the countries enter thereinto.
22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.
23 But woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck, in those days! for there shall be great distress in the land, and wrath upon this people.
24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword,

The above verses are time located in a very specific time period. In Matthew 24:29 Jesus states that the things found in the following verses (vv. 25-28) occur "AFTER the tribulation of THOSE DAYS."

So verses 20-24 above refer to the time period begun by the event described in verse 20. This period of time is brought to a close by the event described in verse 24a. They "shall fall by the edge of the sword" summarizes the conclusion of this period by the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70

Next, verse 24b is the transition period between those days in verses 20-24a and "then" time in verses 25-28. This transition period refers to the period of Gentile dominion over Jerusalem and Jews after its fall until the events of verse 25-28 occur. This transition period is the "times of the Gentiles" which extends from A.D. 70 to the events that usher in the Second Advent at the end of the age. TAKE NOTE OF THE WORD "UNTIL" as it is gives the extent or how long the Jews will be among the nations and how long Jerusalem will be under Gentile dominion.

and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.

Next, is a third period of time yet future from A.D. 70 period (vv. 20-24a), yet future from this transition period (v. 24b). The length of this this transition period is "fulfilled" when these terrestrial and celestial signs occur. That tells us the times of the Gentiles has come to an end.

Those "men" and "nations" in verses 25-28 "SEE" not only these signs but "SEE" Christ coming in a cloud. The only people who saw the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70 were those armies that surrounded and those living within a few square miles around that city. However, Christ is not referring to the Jews and the Roman armies but to "men" and "nations" actually seeing these things. This is universal judgement coming upon the whole world at the personal visible Second Advent of Christ.

25 And there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring;
26 Men’s hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken.
27 And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory.
28 And when these things begin to come to pass, then look up, and lift up your heads; for your redemption draweth nigh.

The judgment coming upon Jerusalem is merely a MINATURE preview of the greater judgement to come upon the whole world at His coming.

 

I've shown why the coming events are not symbolic. That's just a pret smokescreen to attempt to cover their lack of proof for their assertions.

 

The TRUE beast/antichrist will be one man, not a whole line of them, as the papacy is.

 

No, it's NOT.The antichrist wasn't mentioned to Daniel cuz Christ hadn't yet come.

And the "they" will likely be the 'beast's' workman who will set up his statue in the temple. That, along with the beast's exalting himself above God & every man-made god, will be the AOD.

 

I believe the destruction of J & the temple were the fulfillment of the "days of vengeance" against that generation of Jews, whom Jesus said was to be held responsible for every murder of a righteous person, from Abel onward.

A much-greater punishment fell upon the Jews a few generations later, when Hadrian expelled them from their land in 135-136 AD. This was far-worse than the Babylonian captivity where the jews were allowed to live together, under fairly-loose supervision by Babylon. When hadrian expelled them, they were scattered all over Europe & the Near East. They were hated & persecuted wherever they went. Only God's power kept them from being exterminated as a people. That punishment lasted til the nazis fell in 1945. And I believe that was their national punishment for rejecting & killing Jesus.

The "powers of the heavens" is a term for the orderly procession of the celestial objects in the sky - sun, moon, planets, stars. Evidently, the coming catastrophe will disrupt the earth's rotation & axial tilt. That's why I believe God will use a planet-size body to accomplish that great cosmological event. And I believe "men's hearts will fail them for fear" because the unsaved will believe that the earth's gonna collide with that visitor from space. But, of course, Jesus will return in the midst of it & calm the storm.

 

That's cuz you don't have an answer. My intel is from SCRIPTURE, not some pret quack's stuff.

 

How silly can you get???????????????????????????????

I POSTED THE SCRIPTURE ! !

 

The interp is self-explanatory.

Just face it, dude - You simply CANNOT justify preterism.

 

οἰκουμένη actually means the 'inhabited earth' and is not restricted to the Roman Empire. Try Luke 4:5 or Hebrews 2:5.
To say that the area outside the Roman Empire was unknown to the Romans is incorrect. They tried to invade both Germany and Parthia around or just before the time of Christ on earth.

 

I was wrong to say "known" world. The area they knew about was clearly greater than the Roman Empire.

However I still stand on my definition of οἰκουμένη. Your two verses fit well enough into that definition.

Another verse is Luke 2:1:

"And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world [οἰκουμένη] should be taxed"

Clearly, Caesar was only able to tax those countries that were under the Roman sway. He was not planning to tax an area
"greater than the Roman Empire."

It is possible that οἰκουμένη may not always refer to the Roman Empire but in most cases. like Luke 2:1, it does seem to.

 

The context shows what the meaning of οἰκουμένη is in any given text.
Luke 4:5. 'Then the devil, taking Him up onto a high mountain, showed Him all the kingdoms of the world in a moment of time.'
Hebrews 2:5. 'For He has not put the world to come, of which we speak, in subjection to angels.'
It is a huge stretch to suggest that either of these refer to the Roman Empire.

Likewise, Matthew 24:14. 'And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in all the world as a witness to all nations, and then the end will come.' It is an even bigger stretch to suggest that 'all nations' refers only to those within the Roman Empire, unless you have already somehow decided that the 'end' happened in AD 70 and that you have to shoehorn every text to fit your erroneous doctrine.