Spiritual death has been "passed" from Adam

It seems that this discussion centers around your understanding and application of the term "moral." Why can't you accept that "moral" cannot be limited to conduct or to a code, but primarily defines character? This is the way it is used in scripture as the writers use moral terms "righteousness" and "unrighteousness" not merely to describe conduct but to define character. God describes his own character in moral terms.

No moral code was provided mankind until Moses, and yet character had been defined in moral terms since creation. The law REVEALS the nature of God's moral character as righteous and holy in contrast to the nature of man's moral character as unrighteous and unholy.

 

"the righteousness which is of the law" refers to righteousness obtained by obedience to the law. Christ did not obey the law to be righteous and we cannot obey the demands of the law whether lost or saved. Why? Because the righteousness demanded by the law requires is above and beyond what we are capable of doing as demands being perfect "EVEN AS God is perfect" and "being holy EVEN AS God is holy." Hence, it reveals what kind of righteousness belongs exclusively to sinless beings. Righteousness is not obtained by obedience to law either by Christ or by us, it simply reveals the righteousness that characterizes Christ - sinlessness. Hence, righteousness must be imparted and imputed but never is obtained by obedience because if you have to obey it to obtain it, it proves you are already disqualified, already failed, already violated it.

 

According to the Divine Law that governs the rules of atonement (Leviticus) one without spot and blemish can suffer and be put to death "for the people...because of their transgresssions" (Lev.16).

American, Roman and Jewish jurisprudence denies the just can suffer for the unjust but divine jurisprudence which governs atonement demands that only the "just" can be an atonement for the unjust.

 

Physial death is the consequence, not the cause of spiritual death. We are subject to physical death in the womb from the time of conception and thus there must be a cause for physical death inseparable from our own person while in the womb for that to be so.

 

Never said we are! I said it is Divine Law = God's Word that governs and defines atonement and that is revealed in the book of Leviticus. Jesus was born under the Law and Jesus did fulfill the divine demands as a proper atonement which are determined and defined by God's Law/Word.

 

How do you explain the universal language used by Paul in Romans 3:19-20 and the singular "Law"?

19 ¶ Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

 

No, I basically agree with you. However, neither the law of conscience or the law of Moses was the basis of universal death between Adam and Moses. But, there was the law in Genesis 2:17 that was the basis for universal death and Paul makes a very clear and repetitive case that was the law that brought universal death upon all mankind.