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Does the Bible actually say that?Did God the Father, actually turn his back on Christ, while the sin of the entire world was on him?
Does the Bible actually say that?
Of course not (John 16:32).Did God the Father, actually turn his back on Christ, while the sin of the entire world was on him?
My question was: does the Bible actually say the Father "turned his back on Christ?" The answer is no. Of course Christ was made sin for us, paying our sin debt in full. That's not the question I asked, though.2 Corinthians 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
Not in so many words. Indeed, since God is Spirit, such an idea is an anthropomorphism. Moreover, one of the attributes of God is that He is omni-present (Psalms 139:7-12).Does the Bible actually say that?
No. In fact, it teaches the opposite (that God will never turn his back on His Righteous One...hence we know God will not turn His back on us).Does the Bible actually say that?
I would say He did. Thus Christ suffering Spiritual Death; being strictly defined as separation from The Father, nothing more.Did God the Father, actually turn his back on Christ, while the sin of the entire world was on him?
Technically, He was forsaken. God is omnipresent. And His soul died being forsaken on the cross. Isaiah 53:10; Isaiah 53:12; John 10:17-18, Romans 5:8. And in dying for our sins (sheding His blood). He never ceased being the God who cannot die, Hebrews 1:3. So by way of His Son, the God who never died (1 Timothy 1:17), died too.AS I grew up - I was always taught that God did turn his back - but I could not find anywhere in scripture that stated that.
Amen! Follow Psalms 22 through to verse 21: "You have answered Me." It was the ninth hour (3 pm) when Jesus gave His cry, and at that very moment, the sun reappeared, and our Lord could give a second cry "It is finished!" It was accomplished; it was completed; it was paid. Divine justice was satisfied, and God is seen to be just and the justifier of the one who trusts in JesusPerhaps one could make the argument that he turned his back on him even though he did not hide his face from him. Psalm 22:23-24 (NIV):
You who fear the Lord, praise him!
All you descendants of Jacob, honor him!
Revere him, all you descendants of Israel!
For he has not despised or scorned
the suffering of the afflicted one;
he has not hidden his face from him
but has listened to his cry for help.
The very word translateed "It is finished" is the word translated, "accomplished," where it says, ". . . Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . ." John 19:28. This was before He physically died. And His soul was restored to life and His fellowship was again with His Father, Luke 23:46.Amen! Follow Psalms 22 through to verse 21: "You have answered Me." It was the ninth hour (3 pm) when Jesus gave His cry, and at that very moment, the sun reappeared, and our Lord could give a second cry "It is finished!" It was accomplished; it was completed; it was paid. Divine justice was satisfied, and God is seen to be just and the justifier of the one who trusts in Jesus
Amen.No. In fact, it teaches the opposite (that God will never turn his back on His Righteous One...hence we know God will not turn His back on us).
It is also the word translated 'pay' in Matthew 17:24. I am told that during the Roman Empire, the word was used in all sorts of financial transactions, meaning 'Paid in Full.'The very word translated "It is finished" is the word translated, "accomplished," where it says, ". . . Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . ." John 19:28. This was before He physically died. And His soul was restored to life and His fellowship was again with His Father, Luke 23:46.
Answer the questions to my post 49 in the thread, Where was Jesus for three days? in theDid God the Father, actually turn his back on Christ, while the sin of the entire world was on him?
Yes, that word in its varous grammatical useages in the NT occurs some 26 times. But as τετελεσται only twice.It is also the word translated 'pay' in Matthew 17:24. I am told that during the Roman Empire, the word was used in all sorts of financial transactions, meaning 'Paid in Full.'