Is our theology derived mainly from the Gospels or Epistles then?

[kyredneck]

I haven't had time to look at your link

It's a shame, if you did I probably wouldn't have to be rehashing this with you all over again; you've a very short memory...,

if you look through the Gospels, I think you'll find that most of the people healed either came to our Lord or were brought to Him; He didn't have to go looking for them (e.g. Mark 1:32-34; 5:53-56).

Again, I repeat myself because of your stubbornness, this does not change this fact:

24 But he answered and said, I was not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Mt 15

...or this one:

8 For I say that Christ hath been made a minister of the circumcision for the truth of God, that he might confirm the promises given unto the fathers, Ro 15

Gill:
"...“I am not sent, but to the lost sheep of the house of Israel; as a priest, or as a Saviour and Redeemer, he was sent to make satisfaction and atonement for the sins of all God's elect, and to obtain eternal redemption and salvation for all of them, whether Jews or Gentiles; but as a prophet, in the discharge of his own personal ministry, he was sent by his Father only to the Jews; he was the "minister of the circumcision", Romans 15:8 that is, a minister to the circumcised Jews…..”

I know that you Reformed types have a really difficult time thinking outside your Reformed box, but, have you ever thought what the distinction between these two might be?:

7 but contrariwise, when they saw that I had been intrusted with the gospel of the uncircumcision, even as Peter with the gospel of the circumcision Gal 2

 

[Martin Marprelate]

It's a shame, if you did I probably wouldn't have to be rehashing this with you all over again; you've a very short memory...,



Again, I repeat myself because of your stubbornness, this does not change this fact:

24 But he answered and said, I was not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Mt 15

...or this one:

Already dealt with. It will help if you read my posts before answering them. But since you are being so dense, here's a little more help for you. The woman recognizes Jesus as Lord and Son of David (v.22). She therefore qualifies as a child of Abraham according to Galatians 3:7. She asks Him to heal her daughter; the disciples ask Him to send her away (v.23). Whose request does He answer?

Also read Matthew 8:8-13 and explain to me why the Lord Jesus healed a Roman Centurion's servant There is no indication that the servant was Jewish.

8 For I say that Christ hath been made a minister of the circumcision for the truth of God, that he might confirm the promises given unto the fathers, Ro 15

Romans 15:8-9. 'Now I say that Jesus Christ has become a servant to the circumcision for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made to the Fathers AND that the Gentiles might glorify God for His mercy, as it is written............' The verses convey the exact opposite of what you are trying to make them mean.
Jesus Christ is Prophet, Priest and King over the whole world. '...Is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also since there is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith' (Romans 3:29-30).

Now you need to answer my points from my last post. What was our Lord doing in 'the region of Tyre and Sidon'? This is by no means in Israel.
Also, He visited the Decapolis, or the area of the Gadarenes, where the inhabitants herd pigs - not very Jewish - in order to heal a demoniac (Mark 5:1-20). He also comes to Samaria, hated by the Jews, to bring salvation to a woman of doubtful reputation sitting by a well. What was He doing in these places?

And I want an answer to this question. Mark 1:15. 'Repent and believe the Gospel.' as a non-Jew, does this apply to me? If so, why?

Gill:
"...“I am not sent, but to the lost sheep of the house of Israel; as a priest, or as a Saviour and Redeemer, he was sent to make satisfaction and atonement for the sins of all God's elect, and to obtain eternal redemption and salvation for all of them, whether Jews or Gentiles; but as a prophet, in the discharge of his own personal ministry, he was sent by his Father only to the Jews; he was the "minister of the circumcision", Romans 15:8 that is, a minister to the circumcised Jews…..”

I know that you Reformed types have a really difficult time thinking outside your Reformed box, but, have you ever thought what the distinction between these two might be?

That our Lord's ministry took place mostly (though not entirely - see above) in Israel is not at issue. The issue is whether His words apply to Gentiles as well as Jews. Do they?

7 but contrariwise, when they saw that I had been intrusted with the gospel of the uncircumcision, even as Peter with the gospel of the circumcision Gal 2

Yet Peter brings the Gospel to Cornelius, and Paul, in every town he visits, makes a bee-line for the synagogue, if there is one, and preaches the Gospel there (Acts 13:14; 14:1; 17:1, 17; 18:4, 19). What the verse means is simply that Peter's ministry was mainly in Israel (though that didn't stop him writing letters to largely Gentile churches) and Paul's was throughout the Mediterranean.

There is one Gospel, and it is for everyone.

 

[Yeshua1]

only the saved believed it. It was instruction but broadened when it went to the gentiles.

The full Gospel was not yet given until after death and resurrection of Jesus, as that was outlined in Acts and explained in Epistles!

 

[Yeshua1]

This is much more to the point than just citing the whole Bible, which sounds more like a copout.

The OP points to an important fact: we all start somewhere when developing our understanding, that is, every point cannot be primary or of equal importance.

Also, everyone has their own background before coming to faith. Some start with more Bible experience than others, which can be both useful and detrimental.

The Epistles give to us the theology of the new Covenant, as that theology was not given in full until messiah was born, died, and rose again!

 

[Yeshua1]

All of the Bible is for Christians. All of it is God's words (except for a few instances where it specifies otherwise). And it is sufficient for our doctrine (it is not lacking).

Yes, indeed all of it was inspired, but due to progressive revelation, is it all directly applied to us now?

 

[Yeshua1]

He also said, "O woman, great is your faith! Let it be to you as you desire." He was testing the woman to draw out her faith. Se also Matthew 8:5-13. Maybe the woman was of the house of Israel after all (Romans 2:28-29).
So which of our Lord's words do you not wish to obey?

The Apostles were sent just to the lost house of Isreal in the Gospels, correct?

 

[Yeshua1]

All of scripture points us to the Redeemer. All the covenants of God shed light on his redemption.
Sadly, the attempt to designate parts of scripture over others is a favorite pastime of dispensationalists. However, there is no justification for it in scripture.

The theology of the new Covenant comes from Nt Books, correct?

 

[1689Dave]

The full Gospel was not yet given until after death and resurrection of Jesus, as that was outlined in Acts and explained in Epistles!

How so? Peter preached it at Pentecost. The epistles taught the Sermon on the Mount as Jesus interpreted the Law according to it. They also elaborated on Peter's sermon at Pentecost. Peter preached it long before Paul.

 

[Yeshua1]

Already dealt with. It will help if you read my posts before answering them. But since you are being so dense, here's a little more help for you. The woman recognizes Jesus as Lord and Son of David (v.22). She therefore qualifies as a child of Abraham according to Galatians 3:7. She asks Him to heal her daughter; the disciples ask Him to send her away (v.23). Whose request does He answer?

Also read Matthew 8:8-13 and explain to me why the Lord Jesus healed a Roman Centurion's servant There is no indication that the servant was Jewish.

Romans 15:8-9. 'Now I say that Jesus Christ has become a servant to the circumcision for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made to the Fathers AND that the Gentiles might glorify God for His mercy, as it is written............' The verses convey the exact opposite of what you are trying to make them mean.
Jesus Christ is Prophet, Priest and King over the whole world. '...Is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also since there is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith' (Romans 3:29-30).

Now you need to answer my points from my last post. What was our Lord doing in 'the region of Tyre and Sidon'? This is by no means in Israel.
Also, He visited the Decapolis, or the area of the Gadarenes, where the inhabitants herd pigs - not very Jewish - in order to heal a demoniac (Mark 5:1-20). He also comes to Samaria, hated by the Jews, to bring salvation to a woman of doubtful reputation sitting by a well. What was He doing in these places?

And I want an answer to this question. Mark 1:15. 'Repent and believe the Gospel.' as a non-Jew, does this apply to me? If so, why?


That our Lord's ministry took place mostly (though not entirely - see above) in Israel is not at issue. The issue is whether His words apply to Gentiles as well as Jews. Do they?

Yet Peter brings the Gospel to Cornelius, and Paul, in every town he visits, makes a bee-line for the synagogue, if there is one, and preaches the Gospel there (Acts 13:14; 14:1; 17:1, 17; 18:4, 19). What the verse means is simply that Peter's ministry was mainly in Israel (though that didn't stop him writing letters to largely Gentile churches) and Paul's was throughout the Mediterranean.

There is one Gospel, and it is for everyone.

What then was the Mystery revealed unto Paul and was hidden until that time?

 

[Yeshua1]

How so? Peter preached it at Pentecost. The epistles taught the Sermon on the Mount as Jesus interpreted the Law according to it. They also elaborated on Peter's sermon at Pentecost. Peter preached it long before Paul.

Paul explained the full meaning of justification most completely and fully!

 

[JonC]

Yes, indeed all of it was inspired, but due to progressive revelation, is it all directly applied to us now?

Yes. All of Scripture directly applies to us now because all of Scripture testifies of Christ. What you have to consider is principle and application.

If you have never read it, I recommend getting a copy Grasping God's Word by Duvall and Hayes. It is an excellent resource.

https://www.amazon.com/Grasping-Gods-Word-Hands-Interpreting/dp/0310492572

That said, perhaps you could provide an example of Scripture you think may not apply to us now for discussion.

 

[kyredneck]

Already dealt with. It will help if you read my posts before answering them.

You doggedly keep doing the same thing, arguing, trying to refute Christ's words instead of understanding Christ's words, "I was not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

For the umpteenth time, the fact that Christ refused no one that came to Him in faith in no way negates His mission as 'a prophet like unto me', sent only to Israel.

The issue is whether His words apply to Gentiles as well as Jews. Do they?

Bingo! That's 'the issue'. Rightly dividing. Because He was at once ‘The Prophet’ who warned of the imminent demise of one dispensation and the Author and Mediator of a new one [Hebrews 12:24-29] the issue becomes rightly dividing 'His words'.

There is one Gospel, and it is for everyone.

In as few words as possible Martin, what's your gospel [good news]? Give me the 'bare bones necessities' to make the hearer happy.

My 'good news' is my signature below.

 

[1689Dave]

Paul explained the full meaning of justification most completely and fully!

So? Dying for our sins explains it too.

 

[Yeshua1]

Yes. All of Scripture directly applies to us now because all of Scripture testifies of Christ. What you have to consider is principle and application.

If you have never read it, I recommend getting a copy Grasping God's Word by Duvall and Hayes. It is an excellent resource.

https://www.amazon.com/Grasping-Gods-Word-Hands-Interpreting/dp/0310492572

That said, perhaps you could provide an example of Scripture you think may not apply to us now for discussion.

The scriptures describing how to live under Old Covenant, all 613 rules!

 

[Yeshua1]

So? Dying for our sins explains it too.

If we did not have Romans, would we be missing anything major?

 

[JonC]

The scriptures describing how to live under Old Covenant, all 613 rules!

What do you believe was the purpose of the Old Covenant (the Law)?

 

[timtofly]

You trying to be 'cute'?:
21 And they asked him, What then? Art thou Elijah? And he saith, I am not. Art thou the prophet? And he answered, No. Jn 1
22 Moses indeed said, A prophet shall the Lord God raise up unto you from among your brethren, like unto me. To him shall ye hearken in all things whatsoever he shall speak unto you.
23 And it shall be, that every soul that shall not hearken to that prophet, shall be utterly destroyed from among the people. Acts 3
You're not cute. You're showing your ignorance.

Who can be like Moses, and lead God’s people out of Egypt at the last Day?

 

[1689Dave]

If we did not have Romans, would we be missing anything major?

We have it and still miss much of it unless you are Amillennial and a Calvinist.

 

[Yeshua1]

What do you believe was the purpose of the Old Covenant (the Law)?

The law was given to Israel to govern their conduct and to show them the holiness of God, and also to prepare them for their coming of their Promised messiah.

 

[Yeshua1]

We have it and still miss much of it unless you are Amillennial and a Calvinist.

Ones eschatology will not determine how we read Romans in the sense of Pauline Justification!