The Bible wars.

Good question. It was sold to me as a TR. Two things I noted, 1 John 5:7 in smaller Greek type and it has 'εις σωτηριαν' in 1 Peter 2:2. I will get back on that. It is on my desk at home.
It stood out in my mind because the first Greek NT I bought, was Nestles GNT, not Aland. It showed that 'εις σωτηριαν' as majorty reading. That stood out in my mind. None of the later GNT I had gotten showed that. Except the F35GNT.

 

The whole text is in Greek letters including the chapter divisions.

It hs a title. I am going to transliterate the Greek:
Eh KAINEh
DIAThEhKEh

It has some kind of identification 1957
Again, transliterate:
BIBLIKEh ETAIREIA
ODOS PhILELLEhNOhN 2(a solid Delta)
AThEhNAI

And on the next page in English "Printed in Great Britain"

 

On eBay I found a similar item, Same year, about same size, different color and printing on the outside hard cover. Same publisher different printing. Mine is single wide column per page of text.
Antique Pocket Μini Greek New Testament 1957 Great Britain printed collective ed | eBay

 

Thank you.
I came across that eBay book trying to find the publisher. Though that edition is different edition than mine (which I bough because I was told it was a TR), it has the very same publisher and 1957 date as my edition. The title on that page being different than my copy.

The whole reason for this search was the fact that the TR is not known for that reading in 1 Peter 2:2. And my copy has it. I have not checked every reference in it, but of the other references checked it seems to be the same as a TR. Odd.

 

That Greek NT sold to me as a TR is a mixture of readings.

 

There are the readings which all the text families share in common. So when it comes to discerning which variants are original or not, who are more qualified, the lost or the redeemed, John 8:47? Texts that are proven consistent between themselves or texts which are inconsstent between themselves in their ascribed family of text?

 

No more so than any other teachings where genuine believes disagree. Where there are more than one teaching on an issue only one can be true, or all of those views can be false. Is not Psalms 119:89, " For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven," not true? Is there not only one true given written words of God? It remains an issue known variants are not all the word of God. And professing Christians who say it does not matter are taking sides with the Enemy.
And this difficulty does not change that, Luke 4:4 has the true words, ". . . It is written, That man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word of God." 99.5% versus 0.5% of the texts.

 

Where do you think the copies which begain being handed down came from?