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God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved

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SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
"1Therefore I exhort first of all that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks be made for all men, 2for kings and all who are in authority, that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and reverence. 3For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. 5For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, 6who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time" (1 Timothy 2)

Here we have one of the clearest passages in the Bible, for the Universal Death for the Salvation of the entire human race. This is known as "pontential" salvation.

In every instance in this passage, the word "ALL", refers, not, as some teach, to just an "elect" few, but the whole human race. The "ALL men", here include "ALL those in authority", as kings and other leaders. There is no restriction here that this is limited to only a few leaders, but ALL. Then Paul informs us, that it is "good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior", that we pray for this, because God, "DESIRES" the salvation of ALL MEN, those ALL mentioned earlier. Further, we read that Jesus Christ is the "Mediator between God and men,", that is, the ALL MEN in this passage, the human race. It then says that Jesus Christ, "gave Himself a ransom for all", the same ALL in this entire passage.

No honest, Bible-believing Christian can take these words in any other way, unless for theological bias, than for what it very plainly says, that God desires (wills) that the whole human race were saved. This is exactly what the Apostle John says in his Gospel, 3:16.

This is the heart of the God of the Holy Bible. Yet there are some who oppose this.
 

AustinC

Well-Known Member
"1Therefore I exhort first of all that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks be made for all men, 2for kings and all who are in authority, that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and reverence. 3For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. 5For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, 6who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time" (1 Timothy 2)

Here we have one of the clearest passages in the Bible, for the Universal Death for the Salvation of the entire human race. This is known as "pontential" salvation.

In every instance in this passage, the word "ALL", refers, not, as some teach, to just an "elect" few, but the whole human race. The "ALL men", here include "ALL those in authority", as kings and other leaders. There is no restriction here that this is limited to only a few leaders, but ALL. Then Paul informs us, that it is "good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior", that we pray for this, because God, "DESIRES" the salvation of ALL MEN, those ALL mentioned earlier. Further, we read that Jesus Christ is the "Mediator between God and men,", that is, the ALL MEN in this passage, the human race. It then says that Jesus Christ, "gave Himself a ransom for all", the same ALL in this entire passage.

No honest, Bible-believing Christian can take these words in any other way, unless for theological bias, than for what it very plainly says, that God desires (wills) that the whole human race were saved. This is exactly what the Apostle John says in his Gospel, 3:16.

This is the heart of the God of the Holy Bible. Yet there are some who oppose this.
Universal death is much, much different than universal atonement.

Here's how I see the difference. Jesus blood effectively atones for people from every nation, tribe and tongue. Yet, not every human in every nation, tribe and tongue will believe. Therefore, Jesus atonement is limited to those who believe, from every nation, tribe and tongue.

Universal death, but not universal atonement.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Universal death is much, much different than universal atonement.

Here's how I see the difference. Jesus blood effectively atones for people from every nation, tribe and tongue. Yet, not every human in every nation, tribe and tongue will believe. Therefore, Jesus atonement is limited to those who believe, from every nation, tribe and tongue.

Universal death, but not universal atonement.

Universal death means that Jesus Christ died for the sins of the entire human race. Not all will be saved, because salvation is no automatic, it requires that the Sinner "repent and believe in the Gospel", as Jesus Himself says in Mark 1:15. The passage in 1 Timothy says that Jesus is a "ramson" for ALL sinners, without exception, and not just every class as some distort this to mean.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Universal death means that Jesus Christ died for the sins of the entire human race. Not all will be saved, because salvation is no automatic, it requires that the Sinner "repent and believe in the Gospel", as Jesus Himself says in Mark 1:15. The passage in 1 Timothy says that Jesus is a "ramson" for ALL sinners, without exception, and not just every class as some distort this to mean.
God the Father intent was to save out his own peculiar people unto Himself through the Cross and resurrection of Jesus...
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
God the Father intent was to save out his own peculiar people unto Himself through the Cross and resurrection of Jesus...

address the OP, it clearly does not agree with what you say here. The passage from 1 Timothy is NOT elect only salvation
 

canadyjd

Well-Known Member
"1Therefore I exhort first of all that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks be made for all men, 2for kings and all who are in authority, that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and reverence. 3For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, 4who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. 5For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus, 6who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time" (1 Timothy 2)

Here we have one of the clearest passages in the Bible, for the Universal Death for the Salvation of the entire human race. This is known as "pontential" salvation.

In every instance in this passage, the word "ALL", refers, not, as some teach, to just an "elect" few, but the whole human race. The "ALL men", here include "ALL those in authority", as kings and other leaders. There is no restriction here that this is limited to only a few leaders, but ALL. Then Paul informs us, that it is "good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior", that we pray for this, because God, "DESIRES" the salvation of ALL MEN, those ALL mentioned earlier. Further, we read that Jesus Christ is the "Mediator between God and men,", that is, the ALL MEN in this passage, the human race. It then says that Jesus Christ, "gave Himself a ransom for all", the same ALL in this entire passage.

No honest, Bible-believing Christian can take these words in any other way, unless for theological bias, than for what it very plainly says, that God desires (wills) that the whole human race were saved. This is exactly what the Apostle John says in his Gospel, 3:16.

This is the heart of the God of the Holy Bible. Yet there are some who oppose this.
A few questions...

Why does God not save all (if you don’t believe all are saved)?

Is God not able to save all He desires to be saved?

Do you believe God must intervene through Holy Spirit in a person’s life before that person will come to saving faith?

If you believe God Holy Spirit must intervene in a person’s life, does He use the same amount of influence on every single person on the earth whether or not they ever hear the gospel during their life times?

Do you believe people can come to salvation after they die?

Peace to you
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
A few questions...

Why does God not save all (if you don’t believe all are saved)?

Because it is a "Free will" offering. that is why the Bible says, "choose this day whom you will serve", this would be completely pointless if we are "pre-destined".

Is God not able to save all He desires to be saved?

God is very much able to do as He pleases, but the Bible says, that God uses the "foolishness of preaching to save those who believe" ( 1 Cor. 1:21). Note, belief from the sinner is a requirement, as is repentance (Mark 1:15)

Do you believe God must intervene through Holy Spirit in a person’s life before that person will come to saving faith?

Without the Holy Spirit "convicting" the sinner before, they cannot repent. "Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you. And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin...Of sin, because they believe not on me" (John 16: 7-9)

If you believe God Holy Spirit must intervene in a person’s life, does He use the same amount of influence on every single person on the earth whether or not they ever hear the gospel during their life times?

No, "So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God" (Romans 10:17). What is the outcome of those who never hear the Gospel, is up to the Righteous Lord of the Bible

Do you believe people can come to salvation after they die?

"NO! "27Just as man is appointed to die once, and after that to face judgment, 28so also Christ was offered once for all to bear the sins of many; and He will appear a second time, not to bear sin, but to bring salvation to those who eagerly await Him." (Hebrews 9)

Peace to you
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
The Desire of God is not the same thing though as His expressed will!

now you are playing games! So you think that God is double-minded? He "desires" that ALL humans are saved; but in His "expressed will", as you put it, He does not??? Come on, this sounds VERY desperate, and without ANY Bible justification!
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
now you are playing games! So you think that God is double-minded? He "desires" that ALL humans are saved; but in His "expressed will", as you put it, He does not??? Come on, this sounds VERY desperate, and without ANY Bible justification!
God intened that all who ever get saved by Him benefited form that Cross, some, not all sinners....
 

canadyjd

Well-Known Member
There must have been a problem with your answer to my questions. I didn’t see any answers at all.

peace to you
 

AustinC

Well-Known Member
Universal death means that Jesus Christ died for the sins of the entire human race. Not all will be saved, because salvation is no automatic, it requires that the Sinner "repent and believe in the Gospel", as Jesus Himself says in Mark 1:15. The passage in 1 Timothy says that Jesus is a "ramson" for ALL sinners, without exception, and not just every class as some distort this to mean.
You preach salvation by merited works, which both the Bible and I reject.
Universal atonement is not ever taught in the Bible. A person is made holy and perfect by atonement. God saves, by grace, those whom He has atoned. Since not all are saved therefore not all are atoned.
If God chose to save every person, by unmerited favor, then Jesus death would provide full atonement for all. But, God, by His Sovereign choice, does not save all person's. To those who do not and cannot believe, Jesus has not atoned their sins. They die condemned by their unforgiven rebellion.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You preach salvation by merited works, which both the Bible and I reject.
Universal atonement is not ever taught in the Bible. A person is made holy and perfect by atonement. God saves, by grace, those whom He has atoned. Since not all are saved therefore not all are atoned.
If God chose to save every person, by unmerited favor, then Jesus death would provide full atonement for all. But, God, by His Sovereign choice, does not save all person's. To those who do not and cannot believe, Jesus has not atoned their sins. They die condemned by their unforgiven rebellion.
If the Lord Jesus did die in the stead of all lost sinners, as their personal substitute, then how can any be judged to hell, since the Lord Himself died to atone for their sins?
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
I have no clue what your acroynm means.
However, I know, based upon what you have presently written that your username is inaccurate with your teaching. You are teaching saved by merited works.

looks like you cannot understand the English language
 

canadyjd

Well-Known Member
sorry you will have to click to expand
There it is. Thank you.

1st: Where does the Bible say the offer of salvation is a “free-will offering”?

2nd: You stated God is able to do as He pleases (I agree) and then that God chose the foolishness of the message preached to save those who believe.

If God desired every single person on the planet, without exception, to be saved, why did He choose the preaching of the gospel as the means of bringing salvation to His people? A method that ensured billions of people would live and die never hearing the gospel.

peace to you
 
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