Featured Conditional monergism.. You can forfeit salvation.

Here is how it was explained to me. (this particular explanation is from "ScottS", but reflects what I read elsewhere):

The Greek text gives a fairly clear clue as to what is being referred to (its just one's theology that tends to get in the way of seeing it). There is a textual variant here, but it is not relevant to the discussion. The variant is found in the majority text and will be noted here by asterisks, like so: *τῆς*. Since the article follows a preposition, the addition of the article is rather insignificant (as a word used with a preposition can be and often is deemed definite even without the article).1

Note I've use the old English "ye" to reflect the 2nd person plural nominative form, and "you" as the objective form of the plural (like the KJV, which modern English has lost distinction of with the "you" being both singular and plural).

8 τῇ γὰρ χάριτί ἐστε σεσῳσμένοι διὰ *τῆς* πίστεως, καὶ τοῦτο - οὐκ ἐξ ὑμῶν·
- for by grace ye have been saved through *the* faith, and this [is] not of you.
θεοῦ - τὸ δῶρον· 9 οὐκ ἐξ ἔργων, ἵνα μή τις καυχήσηται.
Of God [is] the gift: not of works, in order that not anyone may boast.

There are some verbless clauses here, represented by the inclusion of "[is]" in the above translation. It is the second of these verbless clauses that is translated "it is" in the ESV translation you give (neither the "it" nor the "is" are in the text). But verbless clauses are very common in Hebrew,2 and since Paul thinks in Hebrew, he (and the other NT writers) do such in Greek as well.3 English uses them too, and can reflect this here, a bit awkwardly, like so:

For by grace ye have been saved through faith, and this not of you—the gift of God! Not of works, that no one can boast.

Three Keys to Unlock the Answer
Three key things help determine what the gift from God is:

1. χάριτί (grace) has a grammatical gender of feminine in Greek.
2. πίστεως (faith) has a grammatical gender of feminine in Greek.
3. τοῦτο (this) has a grammatical gender of neuter in Greek.

Greek syntax matches gender of pronouns to the antecedent it refers to.4 So if "this" referred to either grace or faith individually, it should be in the feminine gender—and there is no reason it would not have been had such been the intention. Such a form would be ambiguous, since it could refer to either grace or faith, but likely be referring to the nearest referent, and thus faith.

However, the neuter gender is used for the pronoun. This is the common gender used when a phrase or clause is the antecedent.5 So "this" refers to the whole previous clause, "By grace ye have been saved through faith."6

So this fact expressed by the clause, that only by grace through faith have any who are saved entered into that state of salvation, is a fact that is not something that comes about from oneself, not "of you." Rather, this is an "of God" thing, it is "the gift" of God that such is the way of salvation, by grace through faith.

So the "it" your question refers to is the English added subject of the verbless clause in Greek, which subject is pointing back to the "this" preceding it. Which "this" refers to the entire clause preceding it.

And it is the gift of God in order that it is "not of works" (because none would achieve salvation then, for no sinful person can be as righteous as God, Rom 3:10), and it was so done in order that no person might boast of saving himself or herself through good works. Indeed, good works is what a person is obligated and designed to do anyway, and why God saves anyone at all, so that His will for such to be done is done (v.10).

Conclusion
Theological views make this passage ripe for eisegesis instead of exegesis. But the answer is that God gave a way of salvation that does not include works, as this way is by grace through faith. There are then two direct implications from that:

1. Having faith is not a work (else the contrast would be meaningless).
2. Whether faith is itself given by God or simply is the humble, passive acceptance of truth by man is simply not addressed in the passage—either could fit the language (neither can be boasted of, because either way, faith is not a work), so other evidence from Scripture needs to be advanced to resolve that well known theological debate.7

NOTES

1 Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 1996), 247.

2 Ronald J. Williams, Williams' Hebrew Syntax, 3rd ed. (Toronto: University of Toronto Press, 2007), 206-207.

3 Some examples in Wallace, 54-55, 269-270.

4 Wallace states, "The basic rule for the Greek pronoun is that it agrees with its antecedent in gender and number, but its case is determined by the pronoun’s function in its own clause. This concord principle, however, has many exceptions" (316). For some of those exceptions for demonstrative pronouns (325), such as used here, see 329-335—which do not match the characteristics of the passage here. The argument for shifting of neuter gender to try and refer to faith (feminine) is that "the τοῦτο has been attracted to the gender of δῶρον (dṓron) [which is neuter], the predicate nominative," which Wallace states is unlikely because "δῶρον is not the predicate nom. of τοῦτο, but of the implied 'it' in the following clause" (334).

5 Wallace states, "The neuter of οὗτος is routinely used to refer to a phrase or clause. In such cases, the thing referred to is not a specific noun or substantive" (333).

6 For discussion of this passage by Wallace, see 334-335. He states of this passage that the issue "cannot be solved by grammar alone" (as I have advocated here; mainly because there is a slight possibility of seeing it otherwise). He does conclude, however, that while possible, "it is doubtful [emphasis added] that either 'faith' or 'grace' is the antecedent of τοῦτο," and rather far more likely it refers to "the concept of a grace-by-faith salvation" (as I argue above) since "τοῦτο regularly takes a conceptual antecedent" (335). He does give a fourth adverbial view, where it could mean "and especially" (335). As a final footnote to his discussion, he gives this info (emphasis added):

An examination of all 22 instances of καὶ τοῦτο in the NT (not including Eph 2:8) yielded the following results: 14 or 15 had a conceptual referent (e.g., Luke 3:20; 5:6; John 11:28; 18:38; John 20:20; Acts 7:60; 1 Cor 7:37; Phil 1:9; Heb 6:3 [Phil 1:28 was probable]); four were adverbial (Rom 13:11; 1 Cor 6:6, 8; 3 John 5 [Heb 11:12 is listed by BAGD as adverbial, but the plural is used (καὶ ταῦτα), following more closely the Attic idiom]); three involved the same gender (Luke 2:12; 13:8; 1 John 4:3); no clear examples involved different genders (though Phil 1:28 was possible)​

7 Wallace also concludes "Whether faith is seen as a gift here or anywhere else in the NT is not addressed by this [passage in Eph 2:8]."​

 

AMEN!

13 if we are faithless, he abideth faithful; for he cannot deny himself. 2 Tim 2

Even after all the wickedness Israel had done in the wilderness after leaving Egypt (unbelief, disobedience, murmuring, idolatry, fornication, rebellion, etc.), and even with Balaam wanting so badly to curse Israel, God made Balaam to declare:

He hath not beheld iniquity in Jacob; Neither hath he seen perverseness in Israel: Jehovah his God is with him, And the shout of a king is among them. Nu 23:21
(Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not reckon sin. Ro 4:8)

AND, throughout all their wandering/chastening in the Wilderness He still yet gave them shade by day and light by night, He fed them manna, gave them water, their clothes never wore out, their feet didn't blister, etc., He was with them always even though He granted them no repentance to enter into His Rest. They wandered in the Wilderness for the rest of their lives when they could have spent it in the Land of Milk & Honey had they only believed that it was theirs's for the taking.

 

I respect your belief that I am in error.

" For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God:" ( Ephesians 2:8 ).

I clearly see that, according to the rules of English, "grace" and "faith" are nouns, while "that" is a pronoun.
The phrase, "the gift of God" describes the "that", while the subject of "that not of yourselves:" would be the nearest antecedent noun;
In this case, "faith".

To agree with Romans 6:23, the phrase, "by grace are ye saved through faith" could be construed as the gift.
But, to agree with the following:

Romans 3:21-22 ( the faith "of" Jesus Christ...example, "Saul of Tarsus", where "of" means "by or from" ):
preposition: of

1) expressing the relationship between a part and a whole.
"the sleeve of his coat"
2) indicating an association between two entities, typically one of belonging.
"the son of a friend"

Galatians 2:16 ( the faith "of" Jesus Christ, same as above ).
Galatians 2:20 ( the faith "of" Jesus Christ, same as above ).
Galatians 3:22 ( the faith "of" Jesus Christ, same as above ).
Hebrews 11:1 ( The substance "of" things hoped for, the evidence "of" things not seen ).
Hebrews 12:2 ( Authored and finished by Jesus Christ ).

.....then faith is the gift "of" God, as I see it.
Again, you are of course, free to believe whatever you wish.

I'll stick with faith being the gift, because that's the way it strikes me when I read it and that's what I believe gives all the glory to God and reserves no credit whatsoever to us as men...
that every good gift and every perfect gift ( and what gift is more perfect than the faith "of" Jesus Christ that endures through all hardships? ) comes down from God ( John 3:27, James 1:17 ).

 

The OSAS argument will go on til Jesus returns. Personally, having seen miracles & fulfilled prophecy. I don't plan to "test" it.

 

After all that is being said here, it is my firm understanding the gift in Ephesians 2:8 is the "are ye saved." Otherwise I am of the point of view that our faith is a result of God's gift of changing our minds which precedes the faith.

 

If any of this were true then eternal life is not true. Eternity goes on for ever it never stops it never pauses it just keeps on. When does eternal ever stop? it does not.
MB

 

We can go in circles on this. It is my understanding in Epheians 2:8, "are ye saved," "that," and "the gift" are the subject of that sentence.

 

@prophecy70,
Why is it important to you that salvation can be lost?

The Apostle John wrote in 1 John 5:13, "; that ye may know that ye have eternal life." Typically no one knows when one is going to die. If salvation can be lost, then no one knows that one will actually lose it. If so, what John wrote cannot be true.

 

I hold the view point that because Christ is the propitiation for the whole world, everyone starts out in the vine. So indeed those who do not abide in the vine are removed. Now in 1 John 3:6 we find this, "Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him." Now the question is how one understands as to how one abides in Christ since salvation is a free gift. Noting those who do not abide "neither known him." As little children one may have been safe, but when coming of age never knew Him. see 2 Corinthians 5:21, "For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him."

 

There is also this... Brother Glen

1 John 2:1 My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:

2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

 

Yes, we can.
But since it appears we will never agree on this subject, then I will stop making replies to you about it.

 

Come on Dave you know you can't, its a fire in your bones!... And to 37818 as long as I've been on here, its like dog chasing its tail, never will catch that thing... Brother Glen

 

I think something was lost in the translation, Glen.
I've edited it to be more clear.

 

But you have no propitiation, no atonement, no forgiveness for your sins if you have no faith in, no believing in Christ. You then die with your sins unforgiven.
People of no faith in Christ do not have their sins atoned for, because to have your sins atoned for, means you have been forgiven of your sins.

In Him is preached the forgiveness of sins.
and
John 8:24
Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for if you do not believe that I am He, you will die in your sins.”

1 John 2:2 the whole world means people who believe can all be saved, including the gentiles spread abroad in the world, only if they believe.

 

Atonement has a very specific meaning, not a general nebulous one as in all people of the world Christ has forgiven their sins.
It goes way back to the OT ancient days. To have an atonement means your sins, which are many, are forgiven you.
So to say Christ atoned for the all the sins of every person, means all their sins God has forgiven them, but if they are NOT in Christ, they die in their sins, so they do not have atonement for them do they, to say differently is not only illogical but a demonic doctrine, to be frank and honest about it.

1. Exodus 32:30
   Now it came to pass on the next day that Moses said to the people, “You have committed a great sin. So now I will go up to the Lord; perhaps I can make atonement for your sin.”
   Leviticus 1:4
2. Then he shall put his hand on the head of the burnt offering, and it will be accepted on his behalf to make atonement for him.
   Leviticus 4:20
3. And he shall do with the bull as he did with the bull as a sin offering; thus he shall do with it. So the priest shall make atonement for them, and it shall be forgiven them.
   Leviticus 4:26
4. And he shall burn all its fat on the altar, like the fat of the sacrifice of the peace offering. So the priest shall make atonement for him concerning his sin, and it shall be forgiven him.
   Leviticus 4:31
5. He shall remove all its fat, as fat is removed from the sacrifice of the peace offering; and the priest shall burn it on the altar for a sweet aroma to the Lord. So the priest shall make atonement for him, and it shall be forgiven him.

 

Let's look at what propitiation means in 1 John 2:2

And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

First off there is the 'HE', propitiation means the turning away of wrath of an aggrieved deity, appeasement of wrath.
Only those who are in the 'HE' have that turning away of the wrath of God from themselves.

pro·pi·ti·a·tion
/prəˌpiSHēˈāSHən/
Learn to pronounce
the action of propitiating or appeasing a god, spirit, or person.
atonement, especially that of Jesus Christ.

Yet the unbelieving world has the wrath of God abiding on them, so then they do not have propitiation do they.

John 3:36
He who believes in the Son has everlasting life; and he who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him.”

To say the world's sins are propitiated because of Christ is not only illogical but another demonic doctrine. Because only for them in the 'HE' are their sins propitiated, otherwise they experience God's wrath.
There is no propitiation for unbelievers.

Romans 2:5
But in accordance with your hardness and your impenitent heart you are treasuring up for yourself wrath in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God,
Ephesians 5:6
Let no one deceive you with empty words, for because of these things the wrath of God comes upon the sons of disobedience.
Colossians 3:6
Because of these things the wrath of God is coming upon the sons of disobedience,

1 John 2:2, the word 'world' there is not the unbelieving world's sins are propitiated, it is entirely that for both JEW and GENTILE who are IN CHRIST, only they have propitiation of their sins, only they are delivered from the wrath of God through Christ.

1 thessalonians 1
9 For they themselves declare concerning us what manner of entry we had to you, and how you turned to God from idols to serve the living and true God,
10 and to wait for His Son from heaven, whom He raised from the dead, even Jesus who delivers us from the wrath to come.
.

 

OSAS is based upon the work of God and Grace to the sinner.

Those who feel they no longer need that grace, reject OSAS. Those who feel they need that grace, embrace OSAS.

See (Luke 18:9-14)

See (1 Cor. 15:9) (Eph. 3:8) (1 Tim. 1:15) Paul just kept getting worse and worse.

The argument is never ending because you always have these two types of persons. Pharisee/Sinner.

Quantrill