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John 3:16-18

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SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
My Bible is a late 18th century edition of an original translation that was begun in roughly 1604 and finished in 1611 in England.

Grammatically ( using the language of its day ), I can find very little, if anything wrong with it when I compare it to the Greek of the New Testament or with the Hebrew of the Old Testament.
Also, the Greek that I trust is the "Received Text" or "Textus Receptus":

John 3 Interlinear Bible
https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh3.pdf

If you wish to review the usage of the words being translated, then I invite you to do so.

Lastly,
I don't use Young's Literal ( which was translated using a collated Greek text of some 100 manuscripts and other bit and pieces, sometimes referred to as the Majority Text of Hodges and Farstad, I believe ), although I find it to be helpful on occasion.

I suggest that you take a look at Acts 2.47 in the KJV and then in the Greek and then tell me that their translation is not biased and completely wrong
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
My Bible is a late 18th century edition of an original translation that was begun in roughly 1604 and finished in 1611 in England.

Grammatically ( using the language of its day ), I can find very little, if anything wrong with it when I compare it to the Greek of the New Testament or with the Hebrew of the Old Testament.
Also, the Greek that I trust is the "Received Text" or "Textus Receptus":

John 3 Interlinear Bible
https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh3.pdf

If you wish to review the usage of the words being translated, then I invite you to do so.

Lastly,
I don't use Young's Literal ( which was translated using a collated Greek text of some 100 manuscripts and other bit and pieces, sometimes referred to as the Majority Text of Hodges and Farstad, I believe ), although I find it to be helpful on occasion.

If people wish to ridicule me for that, then that is their prerogative.
I'll wish them well and God's blessings anyway.:)
So 1769 Kjv, which improved the perfect 1611 Kjv?
 

Dave G

Well-Known Member
I suggest that you take a look at Acts 2.47 in the KJV and then in the Greek and then tell me that their translation is not biased and completely wrong
I figure that 53 men, give or take ( many of whom were fluent in Koine Greek ),
spent 7 years agonizing over whether or not the English was correct, then I doubt I'll find anything substantially wrong with it.;)
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I figure that 53 men, give or take ( many of whom were fluent in Koine Greek ),
spent 7 years agonizing over whether or not the English was correct, then I doubt I'll find anything substantially wrong with it.;)
they were not infallible though, nor inspired!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
I figure that 53 men, give or take ( many of whom were fluent in Koine Greek ),
spent 7 years agonizing over whether or not the English was correct, then I doubt I'll find anything substantially wrong with it.;)

Do you understand Greek? Because there is no doubt that it cannot read as it does in the KJV
Check other versions
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
I figure that 53 men, give or take ( many of whom were fluent in Koine Greek ),
spent 7 years agonizing over whether or not the English was correct, then I doubt I'll find anything substantially wrong with it.;)

Dr A T Robertson

Those that were being saved (tou swzomenou). Present passive participle. Probably for repetition like the imperfect prosetiqei. Better translate it "those saved from time to time." It was a continuous revival, day by day. Swzw like swthria is used for "save" in three senses (beginning, process, conclusion), but here repetition is clearly the point of the present tense.
 

George Antonios

Well-Known Member
Acts 2:47 Praising God, and having favour with all the people. And the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved.

That verse is perfect as it is. I can't doubt the word of God just because the verse is misused to teach heresy.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
Acts 2:47 Praising God, and having favour with all the people. And the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved.

That verse is perfect as it is. I can't doubt the word of God just because the verse is misused to teach heresy.
I'd still like to know what in the world he thinks the issue is with the verse.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Acts 2:47
[47]Praising God, and having favour with all the people. And the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved. KJV

Acts 2:47
[47]praising God and having favor with all the people. And the Lord was adding to their number day by day those who were being saved. NASB
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
Acts 2:47
[47]Praising God, and having favour with all the people. And the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved. KJV

Acts 2:47
[47]praising God and having favor with all the people. And the Lord was adding to their number day by day those who were being saved. NASB
There is literally no difference in meaning in those two translations. Not even a little.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
There is literally no difference in meaning in those two translations. Not even a little.
Guess finding fault with the Lord being the One to add daily to the church, not the free will decisions of lost sinners now to get saved!
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Acts 2:47
[47]Praising God, and having favour with all the people. And the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved. KJV

Acts 2:47
[47]praising God and having favor with all the people. And the Lord was adding to their number day by day those who were being saved. NASB
It was the work of the Lord directly Himself either passage!
 

atpollard

Well-Known Member
For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.”

Some would have us believe, that the Greek word, “kosmos”, which is rendered “world” in all English versions of the Bible, should take on a limited, special sense of the world. It is assumed, that, because there are instances in Scripture, where “kosmos” is used in the sense, where the entire world is not intended (and I will not deny that this is indeed true), that this warrants this limited use in our present text. Is this a valid argument? The present context will prove beyond any doubt, that this is not only not the case, but, if anyone would press this limited meaning here, to apply only to the “elect”, then it causes them problems.
Except Esau ...

[Mal 1:3 NASB] 3 but I have hated Esau, and I have made his mountains a desolation and [appointed] his inheritance for the jackals of the wilderness."
[Rom 9:13 NASB] 13 Just as it is written, "JACOB I LOVED, BUT ESAU I HATED."

[Mal 1:3 YLT] 3 Is not Esau Jacob's brother? -- an affirmation of Jehovah, And I love Jacob, and Esau I have hated, And I make his mountains a desolation, And his inheritance for dragons of a wilderness.
[Rom 9:13 YLT] 13 according as it hath been written, 'Jacob I did love, and Esau I did hate.'

[Mal 1:3 DBY] 3 and I hated Esau; and made his mountains a desolation, and [gave] his inheritance to the jackals of the wilderness.
[Rom 9:13 DBY] 13 according as it is written, I have loved Jacob, and I have hated Esau.

[Mal 1:3 WEB] 3 And I hated Esau, and laid his mountains and his heritage waste for the dragons of the wilderness.
[Rom 9:13 WEB] 13 As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated.​

(You seemed to think Young, Darby and Webster were important translations.)

For those into the original language, the word in Malachi is H8130 שָׂנֵא sânêʼ, saw-nay'; a primitive root; to hate (personally) and the word in Romans is G3404 μισέω miséō, mis-eh'-o; from a primary μῖσος mîsos (hatred); to detest (especially to persecute).
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Guess finding fault with the Lord being the One to add daily to the church, not the free will decisions of lost sinners now to get saved!

It is not finding any fault with the Bible but with the KJV using its theological bias in their rendering of the Greek, which is not what the Greek says
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
It is not finding any fault with the Bible but with the KJV using its theological bias in their rendering of the Greek, which is not what the Greek says
What do you think the problem is? There is literally no difference between the KJV and NASB other than updated language.
 
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