SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
My Bible is a late 18th century edition of an original translation that was begun in roughly 1604 and finished in 1611 in England.
Grammatically ( using the language of its day ), I can find very little, if anything wrong with it when I compare it to the Greek of the New Testament or with the Hebrew of the Old Testament.
Also, the Greek that I trust is the "Received Text" or "Textus Receptus":
John 3 Interlinear Bible
https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh3.pdf
If you wish to review the usage of the words being translated, then I invite you to do so.
Lastly,
I don't use Young's Literal ( which was translated using a collated Greek text of some 100 manuscripts and other bit and pieces, sometimes referred to as the Majority Text of Hodges and Farstad, I believe ), although I find it to be helpful on occasion.
I suggest that you take a look at Acts 2.47 in the KJV and then in the Greek and then tell me that their translation is not biased and completely wrong