Featured I have a dumb question....

Jude quoted and used non inspired Enoch, and paul quoted and used a non inspired poet!

 

The notion that the Septuagint was written in the 3rd century B.C. and quoted by the apostles is a fable. The earliest extant manuscript of the Septuagint is dated around 350 A.D and it is painfully evident that it was written after the New Testament had been penned as it most suspiciously changes O.T. passages to fit N.T. quotes, and ineptly at that.
See H.S. Miller. General Biblical Introduction. p.120.
The idea that Jews, 1st century Jews, went around quoting a Greek version of their own oracles is divorced from realism.

 

The humanistic mantra ever being hummed. #2 in signature.

 

NO scripture verse supports that translations were inspired!

 

None except the ones in signature #2.

 

I don't have Miller and don't know what he said. Yet it can be seen in A Disputation on Holy Scripture that there was a question in the 1500s whether the extant Greek Old Testament was the same as what was claimed to have been translated before the days of Christ. However, it does not seem that Whitaker questions whether such a volume had existed.

While it seems strange to me that the Jews in Judaea would have used a Greek translation of their books, it doesn't seem strange to me that Hellenistic Jews would do so. And, so far as I can tell, the inspired New Testament writers (also 1st century Jews, now Christians) produced their original works in the Greek tongue. This is not proof that "1st century Jews went around quoting a Greek version of their own oracles," but enough to make me unsurprised if I find out some of them did so.

 

Right, only Christ and the apostles, and the Pharisees and zealots to whom they quoted the scriptures, were no Hellenistic Jews.
Of course, the New Testament is an altogether different matter.
But that was a useful post. Thank you.

 

lol!

 

Sorry to be of no help.

 

I am truly sorry that someone can ask a legitimate question and it becomes just another excuse to rehash the same old off-topic arguments by the same old players.

 

The answer is simple-both the Septuagint & the Greek of the Gospel of Luke have been translated into English, & it's easy for a non-Greek-using English reader to compare them.

But I agree with Saved By Grace that most-likely Jesus was reading from a vorlage copy of Isaiah that was largely based on the Septuagint. Most likely, being a synagogue copy, it was in Hebrew; hence the small differences in it & the Septuagint.

 

No bible passage supports that notion, and only KJVO have ever held to it!

 

There seems to be some who would see that if they actually used any of the LXX to quote from, meant ascribing inspiration to it?

 

Except the Bible passages in signature #2. This isn't about the KJB. Nice try though.

 

No passages support that notion!

 

Says the brother who has yet to produce once verse saying that copies and translations cannot be given by inspiration, despite being asked to do so over a dozen times by at least two people.

 

The Ones promised inspiration were the Apostles of Jesus Himself and their comrades, none today, or since then!

 

We're talking about the scriptures. You're off arguing against something else.

 

The ONLY inspired scriptures were the Originals!