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KJV Wrongly Translates the Hebrew

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SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Jeremiah 17:9

“The heart is deceitfull aboue all things, and desperately wicked, who can know it?”(KJV 1611)

Why did the KJV use the English “desperately wicked”, when the Hebrew does not mean this?

The Hebrew verb is, “ʼânash”, and means, “be weak, sick” or “incurably diseased”.

“Deceitful is the heart above all things, and sick: who can know it?” (Isaac Leeser Jewish Bible)

Apart from the Geneva Bible, no other English translation around this time, uses “wicked”.

“The heart is deep beyond all things, and it is the man, and who can know him?” (Brenton, LXX)

“The heart is depraved above all things, and it is unsearchable, who can know it?” (Latin Vulgate)

“The heart is stubborn above all things; who can understand it?” (Lasma Syriac Bible)

“The herte of man is schrewid, and `may not be souyt; who schal knowe it? (Wycliffe, 1382)

“Amonge all thinges lyuynge, man hath the most disceatfull and vnsercheable hert. Who shall then knowe it?” (Coverdale Bible 1535)

“Among all thynges, man hath the most deceiptfull and stubburne heart: Who shall then knowe it?” (Bishops Bible 1568)

“The heart is deceitfull and wicked aboue all things, who can knowe it?” (Geneva Bible 1587)

“Crooked `is' the heart above all things, And it `is' incurable -- who doth know it?” (Young 1862)
 
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Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
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Jeremiah 17:9


“The heart is deceitfull aboue all things, and desperately wicked, who can know it?”(KJV 1611)


Why did the KJV use the English “desperately wicked”, when the Hebrew does not mean this?


The Hebrew verb is, “ʼânash”, and means, “be weak, sick” or “incurably diseased”.


“Deceitful is the heart above all things, and sick: who can know it?” (Isaac Leeser Jewish Bible)


Apart from the Geneva Bible, no other English translation around this time, uses “wicked”.


“The heart is deep beyond all things, and it is the man, and who can know him?” (Brenton, LXX)


“The heart is depraved above all things, and it is unsearchable, who can know it?” (Latin Vulgate)


“The heart is stubborn above all things; who can understand it?” (Lasma Syriac Bible)


“The herte of man is schrewid, and `may not be souyt; who schal knowe it? (Wycliffe, 1382)


“Amonge all thinges lyuynge, man hath the most disceatfull and vnsercheable hert. Who shall then knowe it?” (Coverdale Bible 1535)


“Among all thynges, man hath the most deceiptfull and stubburne heart: Who shall then knowe it?” (Bishops Bible 1568)


“The heart is deceitfull and wicked aboue all things, who can knowe it?” (Geneva Bible 1587)


“Crooked `is' the heart above all things, And it `is' incurable -- who doth know it?” (Young 1862)
Did they translate off the Hebrew text, or brought it in from Vulgate or something?
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
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from the good old Geneva Bible. where did they get it from is anyone guess, as it is not in the Hebrew, Greek, Latin, Syriac, etc
Guess this is where the Kjv "inspiration:" kicks in! The "Holy Spirit" revealed to them out of the blue to add it in!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Guess this is where the Kjv "inspiration:" kicks in! The "Holy Spirit" revealed to them out of the blue to add it in!

what is even more confusing, as I was only discussing this today with a friend, that the KJV's translation teams were the very best in the Church at the time, most were brilliant scholars. And yet they failed, not only here, but as I have posted before, on texts on the Deity of Jesus Christ, like Titus 2:13, and 2 Peter 1:1, where they again get the Greek grammar wrong! Maybe the Lord allowed there to show some, that the KJV is just another Version of the Bible, a work of fallible human beings, who were not "Inspired" by God the Holy Spirit.
 

Yeshua1

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what is even more confusing, as I was only discussing this today with a friend, that the KJV's translation teams were the very best in the Church at the time, most were brilliant scholars. And yet they failed, not only here, but as I have posted before, on texts on the Deity of Jesus Christ, like Titus 2:13, and 2 Peter 1:1, where they again get the Greek grammar wrong! Maybe the Lord allowed there to show some, that the KJV is just another Version of the Bible, a work of fallible human beings, who were not "Inspired" by God the Holy Spirit.
They did not know of the Granville Sharp rule!
 

rlvaughn

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Jeremiah 17:9

The Hebrew verb is, “ʼânash”, and means, “be weak, sick” or “incurably diseased”.

“The heart is deep beyond all things, and it is the man, and who can know him?” (Brenton, LXX)

“The heart is depraved above all things, and it is unsearchable, who can know it?” (Latin Vulgate)

“The heart is stubborn above all things; who can understand it?” (Lasma Syriac Bible)

“The herte of man is schrewid, and `may not be souyt; who schal knowe it? (Wycliffe, 1382)

“Amonge all thinges lyuynge, man hath the most disceatfull and vnsercheable hert. Who shall then knowe it?” (Coverdale Bible 1535)

“Among all thynges, man hath the most deceiptfull and stubburne heart: Who shall then knowe it?” (Bishops Bible 1568)

“The heart is deceitfull and wicked aboue all things, who can knowe it?” (Geneva Bible 1587)
Are all the above translations which do not say sick and incurable also wrongly translated, or just the King James?
 

rlvaughn

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
the only other is the Geneva, which much influenced the KJV
Not following you. Where do these (below) say the heart is sick and incurable?
The Hebrew verb is, “ʼânash”, and means, “be weak, sick” or “incurably diseased”.
“The heart is deep beyond all things, and it is the man, and who can know him?” (Brenton, LXX)

“The heart is depraved above all things, and it is unsearchable, who can know it?” (Latin Vulgate)

“The heart is stubborn above all things; who can understand it?” (Lasma Syriac Bible)

“The herte of man is schrewid, and `may not be souyt; who schal knowe it? (Wycliffe, 1382)

“Amonge all thinges lyuynge, man hath the most disceatfull and vnsercheable hert. Who shall then knowe it?” (Coverdale Bible 1535)

“Among all thynges, man hath the most deceiptfull and stubburne heart: Who shall then knowe it?” (Bishops Bible 1568)

“The heart is deceitfull and wicked aboue all things, who can knowe it?” (Geneva Bible 1587)
 

Mikey

Active Member
What did you think of the presentation?

Spoilers!!

Conclusion: Modern versions are just as bad as the JW's New World Translation (NWT) and want to remove core Christian beliefs from scripture. To undermine the true faith.

It's classic KJVO argument;
1)KJV is the (*only) word of God so any differences is satanic, with the purpose to change the word of God.
2)Verses are "removed" from new translations rather than verses were added to KJV (not purposely so)
3)grouping modern translations with the NWT, then connecting this with JW beliefs was derogatory. (tactic to attempt gulit by association)

Additionally the only time Greek manuscripts were mentiond, was to say that the video will not be dealing with greek manuscripts. Since bible translations should be compared to the manuscripts rather than to one another, his argument was lacking.
 
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SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Not following you. Where do these (below) say the heart is sick and incurable?

“The heart is deep beyond all things, and it is the man, and who can know him?” (Brenton, LXX)

“The heart is depraved above all things, and it is unsearchable, who can know it?” (Latin Vulgate)

“The heart is stubborn above all things; who can understand it?” (Lasma Syriac Bible)

“The herte of man is schrewid, and `may not be souyt; who schal knowe it? (Wycliffe, 1382)

“Amonge all thinges lyuynge, man hath the most disceatfull and vnsercheable hert. Who shall then knowe it?” (Coverdale Bible 1535)

“Among all thynges, man hath the most deceiptfull and stubburne heart: Who shall then knowe it?” (Bishops Bible 1568)

“The heart is deceitfull and wicked aboue all things, who can knowe it?” (Geneva Bible 1587)

apologies, misunderstood. I meant that the Geneva is the only other besides the KJV. The others I included to show that these do not.
 

rlvaughn

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
apologies, misunderstood. I meant that the Geneva is the only other besides the KJV. The others I included to show that these do not.
Thanks. Yes, those examples show they do not translate the word as wicked, but they also show they do not translate it as sick or incurable. Looking as the LXX translation, they seem to be translating “ʼânash” with βαθεῖα, which Brenton translates into English as “deep” -- βαθεῖα ἡ καρδία παρά πάντα (Deep is the heart beyond everything), καὶ ἄνθρωπός ἐστι καὶ τίς γνώσεται αὐτόν. So it seems a number of translators believe that the word has a broader range of meaning than just sick or incurable. These more modern translations provide other examples.

ASV: The heart is deceitful above all things, and it is exceedingly corrupt: who can know it?

CEV: You people of Judah are so deceitful that you even fool yourselves, and you can’t change.

DRA: The heart is perverse above all things, and unsearchable, who can know it?

GNT: “Who can understand the human heart? There is nothing else so deceitful; it is too sick to be healed.

LEB: The heart is deceitful more than anything else, and it is disastrous. Who can understand it?

MEV: The heart is more deceitful than all things and desperately wicked; who can understand it?

NKJV: “The heart is deceitful above all things, And desperately wicked; Who can know it?

NRSV: The heart is devious above all else; it is perverse— who can understand it?

RSV: The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately corrupt; who can understand it?

WEB: The heart is deceitful above all things and it is exceedingly corrupt. Who can know it?
 
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