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Featured BIBLICAL atonement

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by JonC, Feb 21, 2022.

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  1. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    the fact that you said that you once believed in Penal Substitution, it seems that it is you who someone has managed to delude into believing that you were wrong!

    You keep on falsely saying, like Agedman, and some others, that it is not in the Bible. Yet just THREE verses in the NT, Romans 3:25; 2 Cor 5:21; and Galatians 3:13, show that you are WRONG!

    Now you can prove that these verses do not teach Penal Substitution?
     
  2. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    1 Peter 2:24 - "and He Himself brought our sins in His body up on the cross, so that we might die to sin and live for righteousness; by His wounds you were healed"

    Galatians 3:13 - "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us—for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who is hanged on a tree”

    2 Corinthians 5:21 - "for him who did not know sin, in our behalf He did make sin, that we may become the righteousness of God in him"
     
  3. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    yeah, reminds me of what Jesus says about the blind leading the blind! :eek:
     
  4. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    A T Robertson on Galatians 3:13, is right

    Having become a curse for us (genomenos huper hēmōn katara). Here the graphic picture is completed. We were under (hupo) a curse, Christ became a curse over (huper) us and so between us and the overhanging curse which fell on him instead of on us. Thus he bought us out (ek) and we are free from the curse which he took on himself. This use of huper for substitution is common in the papyri and in ancient Greek as in the N.T. (Joh_11:50; 2Co_5:14.).
     
  5. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    I see typically in all of your misquoting of the Bible, you OMIT any reference to Romans 3:25; 2 Cor. 5:21; Gal 3:13, etc? Is this because these Scriptures actually are AGAINST what you now believe in, and you rather IGNORE them?
     
  6. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    From what I see, all questions have been addressed.

    @37818 and @canadyjd have asked legitimate questions, but most (you included) are just blowing smoke to hide the topic.

    You hold a relatively new (and a minority) view. Apparently this is also a view you cannot defend, otherwise you would have asked questions, provided responses, and engaged the topic.

    That said, I understand your view. @agedman and I "walked in your shoes". We held your view. But God continues to lead, continues to guide, continues to disciple. Theories of men are crutches many need to accept Scripture. But they are baggage brought in to Scripture rather than biblical teaching. Some will cast off these aids for a truer understanding. Others will cling to these philosophies.

    If you need to rely on reformed RCC doctrine, that is fine. You get the essentials to a degree. But you are missing so much of God's Word, so much truth. I pray you come to see Scripture as sufficient in Christian doctrine.

    If you continue your studies and are truly open to the Word of God, then I suspect He will lead you out of the shallows and into the faith Christians have confirmed for 1500 years prior to the invention of your theories. It comes with Spiritual growth.
     
  7. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    No. I just addressed the verses @37818 suggested we start with.

    I do notice that you still have not provided any passage that states your belief.
     
  8. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    If you quoted a passage stating that Christ's death appeased God, that He was punished instead of us being punished, or that Christ experienced God's wrath.....then yes, I must have missed it.

    Try this -

    Post the passage and put in bold the words of the text stating that Christ experienced God's wrath, that God punished Chriat instead of punishing us, or that God condemns the Righteous to acquit the guilty.

    Otherwise, you don't really have anything important to say. Scripture always outweighs opinion.
     
  9. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    You have provided quite a bit in terms of opinions, theories, what Scripture means to you, and even insults.

    But what I am talking about is Scripture.

    Can you provide even one passage stating Christ experienced God's wrath, Christ's death was to appease God, or that God punished Chriat instead of punishing us?
     
  10. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    We differ on how we determine doctrine. I belueve Scripture is the text if all doctrine, not teachers that teach what we want to hear or reinforce our views.

    You mention the doctrine of the Trinity. Scrioture dtates that the Father is God, the Son and tge Father are One, the Spirit is the Spirit of God, and there is One God. That is enough for me.

    Do that with your theory -

    Please give passages, even one passage, stating Christ experienced God's wrath, Christ's death was to appease God, or that God punished Chriat instead of punishing us.
     
  11. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Can you provide even one passage stating Christ experienced God's wrath, Christ's death was to appease God, or that God punished Chriat instead of punishing us?
     
  12. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    "Surely he has borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted. But he was wounded FOR OUR transgressions, he was bruised FOR OUR iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was on him; and with his stripes we are healed...Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he has put him to grief: when you shall make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand" Isaiah 53:4, 5, 10)

    "Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse FOR US: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangs on a tree" - Galatians 3:13

    Can you not see that OUR punishmeant and sins were on Jesus Christ Who suffered FOR US? Which parts of this can you not understand? would it help if I gave the OT in Hebrew and the NT in Greek, which complete meanings?
     
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  13. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I agree with those passages. Christ did suffer for our sins, He bore our sins in His body, He died for our dins, He died for us, He freed us from the bondage of sin and death, God was pleased to crush Him, by His stripes we are healed....that is not what I am asking you to provide.

    I am asking if you can provide even one passage stating Christ experienced God's wrath, Christ's death was to appease God, or that God punished Chriat instead of punishing us.
     
  14. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Can you not see that when the Bible says that God "wounded, afflicted, bruised" Jesus Christ, it was for OUR sins. This means that Jesus suffered this ON BEHALF of US. Jesus became a curse FOR US?

    Jon if God did not "wounded, afflicted, bruised" Jesus Christ, for OUR SINS, then WHOSE? Was it for Jesus' sins???

    As I have already shown, I believe the the Greek ἰλαστήριος, is not talking about any APPEASEMENT, but is used for "sin-offering".
     
  15. Aaron

    Aaron Member
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    Again, Galatians 3:13 .
     
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  16. Aaron

    Aaron Member
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  17. Aaron

    Aaron Member
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    Insult? I don't know what you mean. You're the one confessing that Christ is not your substitute. I'm just agreeing with you.
     
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  18. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    The Greek translated "for" preceding the genitive case does in fact mean "instead."
    υπερ Strong's, 'A primary preposition; " over", that is, (with the genitive case) of place, above, beyond, across, or causal, for the sake of, instead, regarding ; . . .'
     
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  19. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    what do you make of Matthew 20:28, where Jesus Himself speaks of His Death?

    "even as the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom FOR many.” (also Mark 10:45)

    The English FOR is the Greek preposition ἀντί, which means, "instead, in the place of, to denote exchange"

    This, is what is known as SUBSTITUTION

    Can you and agedman, and the other opponents to the BIBLICAL Teaching of Penal Substitution Atonement, explain what Jesus is here saying. There can be NO OTHER way to understand the use of the Greek ἀντί here!
     
  20. Eternally Grateful

    Eternally Grateful Active Member

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    Lets look at this.

    1. The penalty of sin is death,
    2. We are born dead in adam,
    3. We are made alive who were dead....

    conclusion.

    spiritual death (separation from God) is the penalty of sin.

    Jesus, on the cross. Said it is finished (tetelestai)

    Tetelestai in the Greek is actually a judicial term. It means "paid in full"

    Jesus in his own words states the penalty of sin was paid in full. Yet he had not yet died physically yet. He also then let his physical body die a physical death.

    While on the cross. And while getting beat, He never cried out. Not once did he cry out. Until the 9th hour. something so horrible in that moment made his scream in pain.

    what was that thing that made him scream?

    Your sin, My sin, The sin of the whole world was placed on his body, and in that moment, He suffered the penalty of sin (spiritual death) as he screamed, My God (father) My God (Holy Spirit) Why have you forsaken me.

    Forsake in greek - enkatelipes - to abandon, to desert, to leave behind, to forsake,

    so yeah.. Not only is it scripturally. but it is right there in black and white.

    Christ became a curse for us.

    Subsitituion.

    Christ died for us - substitution

    he who knew no sin, became sin, substitution.

    Without substitution there is no satisfaction.

    As for Christ paying a price. He redeemed (purchased) us by his blood. that was the price.[/QUOTE]
     
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