Featured Did Jesus take on the wrath of God as propitiation for our sin?

Is there a passage that says Jesus took on the wrath of God as a propitiation for our sins? No.

Have you considered that "the cup" does not mean God's wrath (remember, Jesus told His Disciples that they would indeed share that cup).

Matthew 20:22–28 But Jesus answered, “You do not know what you are asking. Are you able to drink the cup that I am about to drink?” They said to Him, “We are able.” He said to them, “My cup you shall drink; but to sit on My right and on My left, this is not Mine to give, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by My Father.” And hearing this, the ten became indignant with the two brothers.But Jesus called them to Himself and said, “You know that the rulers of the Gentiles lord it over them, and their great men exercise authority over them. “It is not this way among you, but whoever wishes to become great among you shall be your servant,and whoever wishes to be first among you shall be your slave; just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many.”

And you exchange Christ with those who take the "mark of the Beast::

Revelation 14:9–10 Then another angel, a third one, followed them, saying with a loud voice, “If anyone worships the beast and his image, and receives a mark on his forehead or on his hand, he also will drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is mixed in full strength in the cup of His anger; and he will be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels and in the presence of the Lamb.

Isaiah 52:14 does not say Jesus was beaten beyond recognition by God's wrath (YOU ADD THAT PART). Peter tells us who caused Christ's suffering (wicked men).


Perhaps it would be better to stick with Scripture rather than theories on this issue (it is that important).

Those of us who affirm a traditional view of Scripture (that it is God's Word, perfect, complete, and the test for all doctrine) purpose is men must be reborn in Christ, die to the flesh, be made alive in Christ (in Whom there is no condemnation). Therefore God is just and the justifier of sinners.

 

The standard is Scripture (which I provided).

You "prove" Christ experienced God's wrath by saying Christ "drank the cup" and offered a passage describing a cup of God's wrath.

BUT you exchange Christ for people who recieved the mark of the Beast. That was the cup they would drink.

AND you ignore that the Disciples would share the cup Chrust would drink. Do you believe John and James drank the cup of God's wrath?

You say being beaten is proof Jesus suffered God's wrath. But Christians have a long history of being beaten and crucified. Was this also God's wrath?

There are no passages that support your mythology. The sad part is you know this (you are not stupid), but will continue your debasement of Scripture to cling to your humanistic philosophy.

Have you ever stopped and considered that God's Word just might be enough? Have you ever asked yourself why God did not see fit to write in Scripture the theory upon which you have built your faith?

 

I think you meant that Jesus took the strike that we deserved. And this is true. If you meant Jesus took the strike instead of us, that would be adding to Scripture (there is only One "Spiritual Rock").

 

Please provide a passage speaking of Moses' "Rod of Justice". Thanks.

 

Seriously?

If you were facing bring whipped, beaten, tortured, humiliated and hung naked on a cross until you died and knew beforehand of the experience why would you be in so much turmoil?

 

No. Scripture has Christ telling then that they would drink from His cup. Are you suggesting Christ was lying?

 

I have no idea what you are asking. God's wrath is reserved "for that day", the Judgment. Christ is the Propitiation for the sins of the whole world, in Whom we escape the wrath to come.

The idea Christ suffered God's wrath is extrabiblical. It is, in fact, anti-biblical.