Featured KJVO question

Who was the superman who told you that and why on earth would you believe such a thing? Do you realize that one making that statement would be claiming he had perfect understanding of all the great doctrines in the scriptures and that he had read and compared all of them in order to reach that conclusion? It is the most incredible thing I think I have heard so far on these forums. You should reconsider who you are listening to I think.

 

You claimed: "So called translations that vary in the number of words by as many as 65,000 and are dynamic equivalences and paraphrases are not real translations."

How would those statements be any more incredible than your unsupported claim about modern translations that you likely have not completely read and have not completely collated word-for-word?
Have you completely read and compared all modern English Bible translations? Do you claim perfect understanding and perfect knowledge of all modern English Bible translations so that your unproven claims about them should not be questioned? Are you a perfect Hebrew and Greek scholar so that your opinions about Bible translations are above being questioned?

 

And that "infamous" 1 John 5:7

 

Oh how could I forget that earth shattering issue? lol

 

It’s ok man

the KJVOs got it right

 

1560, Remember what I said about the 7-fold structure of the scriptures. There is no way that a human mind could paraphrase the words of God or condense them and maintain the integrity of the bible. If the words were maintained in the Hebrew and Greek, what good would that do anybody today? Nobody can read them. If you read the comments between the posters, the one of which calls himself JesusFan and the other called Reformed1689, you will be able to pick up on the fact they do not even believe the Greek texts that they promote. What a sad shape to be in, no?

So yes, there is an inspired authority under which the church of Jesus Christ is governed in their walk in this dark world whether you live to fight against it with every breath you take.

One of the categories of the scriptures that we are given in both Psalms 19 and in Psalms 119 is the "testimonies" of God, that he claims for his written word.
Psa 19:7 .....the testimony of the Lord is sure, making wise the simple.
Psalm 119:152
Concerning thy testimonies, I have known of old that thou hast founded them for ever.

Here is one testimony of God in the context of his giving wisdom through his word and by his Spirit.
1 Cor 2:1 And I, brethren, when I came to you, came not with excellency of speech or of wisdom, declaring unto you the testimony of God.

Paul makes a difference between the gospel and the deep things of God. He said he came knowing only the gospel but God has prepared his deep things for those who have received the gospel and he explains how we can know those things.

2 For I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified.

The point is Paul can not teach the spiritual content of the scriptures and neither can you. It must be taught of God and he tells how it is done. It is through Spirit chosen words as he, the Spirit, dwells in both God and the believer at the same time.

9 But as it is written, Eye hath not seen, nor ear heard, neither have entered into the heart of man, the things which God hath prepared for them that love him.
10 But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit: for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God.
11 For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God.
12 Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God.
13 Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but (in words) which the Holy Ghost teacheth; comparing spiritual things with spiritual.

He goes on to say the testimonies of God can not be known by the natural, unsaved man without the Spirit because he is relegated to employ human wisdom which will not work in the spiritual realm.

I am trying to help you see why we must have the words of God. The reason we have so many denominations now is because we have so many bibles that are accepted as from God but simply are mens best effort to understand him in their own words. It will not work.

The testimonies of God are just 1/7th of the whole. They must be received by faith.

 

The promises in the bible regarding his pure and true word NEVER referred to any translation to come, but to the inspired originals!

 

Are you saying you are not sure what God said?

 

No, as know he always referred to the originals given to prophets and Apostles, and not to any translators afterwards!

 

Is this admitting you do not know what God said because you have only a translation of something you cannot read? What good are the originals really doing you?

 

That is not the reason. Several of the different doctrinal views were already in existence before the KJV was made. Most of the denominations or different doctrinal views were taught from the KJV for many years before 1881 and the modern versions, so you improperly try to blame them for something for which they were not responsible. The archaic language in the KJV may have contributed to some men being able to read different doctrinal views into its renderings.

The word of God was translated into English many years before 1611. The KJV was one of men's efforts to understand and interpret God's words into English, and it was intended to support Church of England doctrinal views. The KJV is an English Bible translation in the sense and way that the pre-1611 English Bibles are and in the sense and way that post-1611 English Bibles such as the NKJV are.

 

Is that what you are saying?

You seem to be unsure whether God faithfully preserved the exact same words that He gave by inspiration to the prophets and apostles since you seem to advocate the unscriptural idea that God supposedly transferred preservation to different words in a different language in 1611 when God never said that He did.

 

Well, according to Jesus in one of the seven parables in Matt 13, describing this age, which he likened to a growing season, he first began gathering the tares in the crop into bundles to be burned before he gathered the wheat into his barn. The bundles were burned at the very end of the harvest. This is the day of the Lord judgement on sinners, the great tribulation. I am guessing there are a lot more bundles in the last 500 years. In another parable concerning this age, he said a woman hid leaven in three measures of meal til the whole was leavened. Three measures, one whole.
Trust me preacher, the new bible societies with their philosophical views are a big part of the leaven and if you are pushing that you are on the wrong side.

 

I am sure he did not use the exact same words because if he did we would be speaking Hebrew and Greek. He has already shown us that he does not use the exact same words in translations by quoting his OT Hebrew into NT Greek. Why are you folks denying that? In Acts 22 Paul spoke to the Jews in Jerusalem in Hebrew and Luke wrote his words in Greek. We do not know in what language God communicated to Adam in the garden but if it was something different than what Moses spake, God not only had to tell him what was said between the two but he also had to translate it.

 

It does not change the information we get from heaven concerning the way this age will end. It will end in apostasy with no one getting saved. A big part of the cause for that is that no one has a bible they can believe anymore. The real bible, according to the apostates, is very far away and unapproachable.

 

I don't know, but if it was English the recorded words were inspired.