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Featured Understanding John 1:14

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Van, Jun 20, 2022.

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  1. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Good grief, did anyone say Jesus was uniquely divine because of the Greek word monogenes? No of course not. Why some have so much difficulty cleaving to truth is beyond me.
    The word means "one of o kind" and is translated as "unique" in several English translations. The reason Jesus is unique is that He is divine.​

    Jesus is "one of a kind" because He is uniquely divine, God incarnate.
    That is what I actually said. Why all this effort to find fault where none exists? Go figure!!
     
    #21 Van, Jun 21, 2022
  2. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    The third word for study is "glory" (G1391 - doxan). What was the glory of Jesus that His Apostles beheld?

    Certainly Jesus fulfilled God's purpose as (1) the Son of God, (2) the Lamb of God, (3) the Christ or Messiah or Savior, (4) the perfect image of God, and (5) as the Good Shepherd caring for and nurturing His sheep. Through the gospel of Christ, we too have beheld His glory. In our verse (John 1:14) some of Christ's unique manifestations of His glory are called out. These will be presented subsequently.
     
    #22 Van, Jun 21, 2022
  3. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    The next phrase (of the only Son from the Father) contains several controversial words which I believe must be dealt with collectively.

    Of the only Son is the NASB translation of monogenes, and could better be translated as uniquely divine Son.

    From (Greek para) might better be translated as "sent from" indicating God incarnate was sent by the Father. Putting the phrase together we get, "the uniquely divine Son sent from the Father.
     
    #23 Van, Jun 21, 2022
  4. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    No... This is what you actually said:

    What you posted (directly above) is different from what you posted further above.

    Because the error with you is not non-existent.

    The Archangel
     
    #24 The Archangel, Jun 21, 2022
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  5. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    You cannot translate παρα as "sent from." WIth the genitive, which it is in this case, it is simply "from," and it in no way implies a verb. The idea is not that Jesus was "sent from" the Father in this clause. The idea is "we have seen His glory" because "seen" is the most direct correlating verb here. Παρα here modifies glory. If you insist on translating the preposition παρα as "sent from" then--in this text--you would need to say that Jesus' glory was sent from the Father.

    The Archangel
     
    #25 The Archangel, Jun 21, 2022
  6. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    what do you mean by "secondary"? are you saying that there is a Yahweh Who is not Yahweh?
     
    #26 SavedByGrace, Jun 21, 2022
  7. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    explain how this can be seen as the Deity of Jesus Christ? It is forcing the meaning
     
    #27 SavedByGrace, Jun 21, 2022
  8. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    No. But a "unique God" to be visible who is at [the invisible] God's side being identied as Yahweh too. John 1:18 [CT reading], Genesis 12:7.
     
    #28 37818, Jun 21, 2022
  9. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Two Persons Who are equally called Yahweh?
     
    #29 SavedByGrace, Jun 21, 2022
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  10. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    It is in the context of the whole passage. The "Word" is identified as being with God and being God in vs 1-3. In v. 14 the Word became flesh and dwelt with man. John continues: "we have seen His glory" and then defines the nature of the glory--"glory as of the only Son from the Father." So, the glory that John (as well as Peter and James) saw was a further demonstration of Jesus' divinity.

    The Archangel
     
    #30 The Archangel, Jun 21, 2022
  11. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    ok, I see, you refer to the passage and not just vere 14. thanks for clearing that.
     
    #31 SavedByGrace, Jun 21, 2022
  12. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Jesus was in the OT as Son of man and as Angel of Yahweh!
     
    #32 JesusFan, Jun 21, 2022
  13. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Jesus was and is the only begotten of the father, eternal logos who incarnated as the Son!
     
    #33 JesusFan, Jun 21, 2022
  14. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    the "conventional" view is that whenever God was seen by men, was preincarnate Christ!
     
    #34 JesusFan, Jun 21, 2022
  15. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    he is the only one who eternally existed as the Logos of the father
     
    #35 JesusFan, Jun 21, 2022
  16. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    Where in the OT was God called the Son of man?
     
    #36 37818, Jun 21, 2022
  17. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    I was going to post before I saw this post, IMHO, "(and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,)," in 1:14 is a reference to the transfiguration, as Peter does in 2 Peter 1:17,18. The transfiguration, being a vision of the post resurrected Jesus coming in glory. Also considering 1 Peter 1:21 Who by him do believe in God, that raised him up from the dead, and gave him glory; that your faith and hope might be in God.

    Your thought?
     
    #37 percho, Jun 21, 2022
  18. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    I think it is likely a reference (either directly or indirectly) to the transfiguration. Much like Peter's words in 2 Peter 1:16, "For we did not follow cleverly devised myths when we made known to you the power and coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, but we were eyewitnesses of his majesty" (emphasis mine). Obviously, v. 17 and 18 reference the transfiguration more directly. So... it would seem John 1:14 is most likely a reference to the transfiguration.

    The Archangel
     
    #38 The Archangel, Jun 21, 2022
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  19. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    Daniel One like the Son of man
     
    #39 JesusFan, Jun 22, 2022
  20. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    No. There the Son of man was with God. Daniel 7:13, ". . . behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, . . ."
     
    #40 37818, Jun 22, 2022
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