I Cor 14 talks about the 3 rules when it comes to speaking in tongues.
One rule discusses that when someone speaks in tongues - that it must be interpreted!
The Main question is: (if you witnessed Biblical speaking in tongues) - could the individual speaking in
tongues be the one to interpreted? Or MUST it be someone else.
PLEASE - DO NOT TURN THIS INTO "tongues is of the devil", "ended with the apostles", ect ect
If you want to go that way then start a new thread.
One rule discusses that when someone speaks in tongues - that it must be interpreted!
The Main question is: (if you witnessed Biblical speaking in tongues) - could the individual speaking in
tongues be the one to interpreted? Or MUST it be someone else.
PLEASE - DO NOT TURN THIS INTO "tongues is of the devil", "ended with the apostles", ect ect
If you want to go that way then start a new thread.