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interpreting tounges

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
Administrator
I Cor 14 talks about the 3 rules when it comes to speaking in tongues.
One rule discusses that when someone speaks in tongues - that it must be interpreted!

The Main question is: (if you witnessed Biblical speaking in tongues) - could the individual speaking in
tongues be the one to interpreted? Or MUST it be someone else.



PLEASE - DO NOT TURN THIS INTO "tongues is of the devil", "ended with the apostles", ect ect
If you want to go that way then start a new thread.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
I Cor 14 talks about the 3 rules when it comes to speaking in tongues.
One rule discusses that when someone speaks in tongues - that it must be interpreted!

The Main question is: (if you witnessed Biblical speaking in tongues) - could the individual speaking in
tongues be the one to interpreted? Or MUST it be someone else.



PLEASE - DO NOT TURN THIS INTO "tongues is of the devil", "ended with the apostles", ect ect
If you want to go that way then start a new thread.

When I used to live in London, in the 1980's, I went to the largest Pentecostal Church at the time. I have no doubt that the greater majority of "tongues" that I heard, was FALSE! People spoke a load of gibberish just to "fit in" with the others. My landlady at the time, said that she "practiced" speaking in tongues every day for 15 minutes! complete rubbish!

The Bible Gift of Tongues is the ability to speak another human language, as was the case on the Day of Pentecost.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
. . . I Cor 14 talks about the 3 rules when it comes to speaking in tongues.
Verse 39, ". . . forbid not to speak with tongues. . . ."
Verses 27-28, ". . . If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret. But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God. . . ."
Acts of the Apostles 2:4, ". . . speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. . . ." [The words being God's words!]
 

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
Administrator
So Far - NO one has answered my question!

Hint - go back to post 1 and read my question!!!
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
LOL. You start a thread on tongues in a Baptist only forum on a Baptist board, then shut down Baptist responses.

The specific verses you cited are instructions to those leading the worship. Concerning interpretation, the only requirement is interpretation. The speaker may also be the interpreter.

1 Corinthians 14:12-13 Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual gifts, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church. Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Have I seen such a thing, NO. Can the person speaking in tongues be the one to interpret what they just spoke, NO.

That would be a circular proof would it not?
 

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
Administrator
where in the NT does it say that they cannot?

Not saying that at all - the other day someone asked me that - and its something I had never thought about.

AAron - I did NOT shut down Baptist response - I simply wanted to only discuss that one issue.

AS I mentioned in the OP - feel free to start another thread!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Not saying that at all - the other day someone asked me that - and its something I had never thought about.

AAron - I did NOT shut down Baptist response - I simply wanted to only discuss that one issue.

AS I mentioned in the OP - feel free to start another thread!

do you believe that the Bible Gift of Tongues, is a heavenly, or human language?
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
Have I seen such a thing, NO. Can the person speaking in tongues be the one to interpret what they just spoke, NO.

That would be a circular proof would it not?
The Spirit begs to disagree. 1 Corinthians 14:13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.
 

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
Administrator
The Spirit begs to disagree. 1 Corinthians 14:13 Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret.

sometimes things stare you in the face - and you just dont see it!
 

atpollard

Well-Known Member
Verses 27-28, ". . . If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret. But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God. . . ."
If THREE speak and ONE interprets, nothing in that sentence prohibits the ONE to be one of the THREE … Does it?

The question in the OP appears to have been answered in the example from scripture.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
If THREE speak and ONE interprets, nothing in that sentence prohibits the ONE to be one of the THREE … Does it?
While it does not say that. Nevertheless that was true. Otherwise it would not have been written, ". . . Wherefore let him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that he may interpret. . . ."
 
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