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Is God The Father Fons Deitatis?

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
Why do humans have such a narrow restricted view of God?

So... Are you implying that you're not human???

Also, we are to have a view of God that is biblical, not unrestricted. That our view of God is properly limited to what He tells us about Himself in scripture necessarily means that the proper view of God is both narrow and restricted.

The Archangel
 

Aaron

Member
Site Supporter
So you do not accept they were 3 persons in Genesis 1? When God walked with Adam in the Garden was that the Word?

There literally is no time affect on the 3 persons in the Trinity, yet from our standpoint there was a specific time the Word was made flesh. So the Son would be the Son throughout all of time. Time would not limit the Lord God in any way.
Christ's Sonship has nothing whatsoever with His becoming flesh. The Father is eternal. He was never not the Father, meaning the Son was never not the Son.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
Then the majority view is just human understanding along with opinion, and some form of opinionated education, and certainly not God's Word.

Inept must mean free of human theology mixed together with years of philosophy.

Why do humans have such a narrow restricted view of God?
God has revealed Himself through His Son.
John 14:6, 1 Timothy 2:5, And what He told the , Prophet Isaiah, Isaiah 43:10-11.
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
I cannot edit this quote:




I will attempt to clear up my error. The term YWHW is Lord. My point should have been YWHW is not God. Elohim is the term for God in the OT.

I should have said Elohim is God. YWHW is the Lord/Adonai. God, the Word, and the Holy Spirit are the manifested Trinity in creation. God is still the catch all term, which is the wrong approach from a Scriptural standpoint. God is not the originator or fountain of the Son. The use of father and son replaces the term God and the Word in linguistics. All 3 were involved in the process of Jesus' birth, but supernaturally, not scientifically. As science cannot explain the nature of God becoming man 100%. Certainly Jesus as a man was 100% biological from Adam's genetic perspective, but Jesus did not take on Adam's dead corruptible flesh. That is also besides the point Jesus did not have a sin nature, which is not genetic.

So, no God was not the fountain. Adonai/Lord/YWHW allowed the physical manifestation of Jesus on earth is what I was trying to point out but failed to do so.

I apologize for the confusion.
Yahweh is God!
 

atpollard

Well-Known Member
Can you quote ONE verse in the entire Old Testament that speaks of the Father and Son relationship?
Proverbs 30:1-4 [NASB20]

The words of Agur the son of Jakeh, the pronouncement.
The man declares to Ithiel, to Ithiel and Ucal:

I am certainly more stupid than any man,
And I do not have the understanding of a man;
Nor have I learned wisdom,
Nor do I have the knowledge of the Holy One.
Who has ascended into heaven and descended?
Who has gathered the wind in His fists?
Who has wrapped the waters in His garment?
Who has established all the ends of the earth?

What is His name or His Son's name?
Surely you know!
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Proverbs 30:1-4 [NASB20]

The words of Agur the son of Jakeh, the pronouncement.
The man declares to Ithiel, to Ithiel and Ucal:

I am certainly more stupid than any man,
And I do not have the understanding of a man;
Nor have I learned wisdom,
Nor do I have the knowledge of the Holy One.
Who has ascended into heaven and descended?
Who has gathered the wind in His fists?
Who has wrapped the waters in His garment?
Who has established all the ends of the earth?

What is His name or His Son's name?
Surely you know!

in Prophecy as in Isaiah 9:6

you would expect MANY verses for this?
 

37818

Well-Known Member
. . . trying to deny that the Son is eternally begotten of the Father.
The issue is not over not having a beginning but over the Son being Eternal not being caused by His Father in any way. The Eternal Son being the Eternal Son because He is the Eternal Son being the uncause Cause on behalf of His Father, which is the reason He is the Son. God is not caused. The Persons who are God because they not only have no beginning, they are not caused.
 
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atpollard

Well-Known Member
in Prophecy as in Isaiah 9:6

you would expect MANY verses for this?
I do not understand your point or your question.
You requested ONE VERSE from the OT that “speaks of the Father and Son relationship” and I obliged by providing such a verse in context. I thought the OT verse very explicit.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
I do not understand your point or your question.
You requested ONE VERSE from the OT that “speaks of the Father and Son relationship” and I obliged by providing such a verse in context. I thought the OT verse very explicit.

This verse has nothing to do with the Father speaking about His Son. Or the Son speaking about His Father, as we have numerous times in the New Testament

Now show ONE verse that has that
 

atpollard

Well-Known Member
This verse has nothing to do with the Father speaking about His Son. Or the Son speaking about His Father, as we have numerous times in the New Testament

Now show ONE verse that has that
LOL

Show me one verse in the OT that says the sins of those that believe in the Son are forgiven. Can’t find one, then I guess that our sins aren’t forgiven.

I quoted a prophet who references God having (present tense) a son.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
LOL

Show me one verse in the OT that says the sins of those that believe in the Son are forgiven. Can’t find one, then I guess that our sins aren’t forgiven.

I quoted a prophet who references God having (present tense) a son.

the literal Hebrew is, "and what name his son", no "IS" in the Hebrew text!

it also says "Surely you know", WHAT is his name, that is known?

Jesus Christ is called in the Old Testament, "Yahweh", and "The Messenger of Yahweh", and "Elohim", etc.

John 1:1, where the word "beginning" is eternity past, says that THE WORD was with GOD. No mention of either SON or FATHER!

Not a single verse in the Old Testament, where God says, "I am sending My Son before you". Instead, we do read, "I am sending My Messenger before you", like in Exodus 23:20

When Abraham gets three visitors in Genesis 18, it does not say that one of them was "the SON", but it does say "Yahweh"

etc, etc.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Whose son?
Who is “HIS”?

you are still ignoring the FACTS of the Old Testament. WHY don't we ever read, where God says, "I am sending My Son", etc, even ONCE? Or the Messenger of the Lord, Who is Jesus Christ, ever say, "My Father"? THIS relationship is NOT ever mentioned in the OT, but is very clear in the NT?

In Luke 1:35, when the angel is speaking to Mary about the Birth of Jesus Christ, says:

"And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God"

Note what it says, "SHALL BE CALLED", which is the Greek, κληθήσεται, in the FUTURE tense! Not IS CALLED.

Again, speaking of the First Coming of Jesus Christ, we read in Hebrews 1:5

For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?

clearly, WILL BE, ἔσομαι, FUTURE tense; SHALL BE, ἔσται, FUTURE tense. WHY?
 
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