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Featured Understanding John 1:14

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Van, Jun 20, 2022.

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  1. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    One falsehood after another. You claimed para could not be translated as sent from because of some Gnostic knowledge of Greek grammar I did not possess. An absolute and profound fiction.

    I have pointed out translating a noun as a verb is wrong, so yet another absolute and profound falsehood.

    Next you drag out the lexical fallacy, yet argon changing the subject from the topic.

    Next did I say one word meaning was intended in every usage when more than one meaning is historical? Nope, so yet another absolute and profound falsehood.

    Para is most closely related to the Father, as the Father sent something.

    You have dishonored yourself, Sir.
     
    #101 Van, Jun 25, 2022
  2. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    To take your "dishonoring" accusations back to the elementary school playground. What is plain to see is that I have explained everything in detail, and yet you have shown no acumen to engage with the material I posted simply because you can't. If you quit projecting long enough you might learn something. Your efforts here to prove your point are quite pathetic. And now, as you turn to the ad hominem, you continue to fulfill what I said you'd do....

    <shakes head...>

    The Archangel
     
    #102 The Archangel, Jun 25, 2022
    • Winner Winner x 1
  3. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    Empty accusations are all you have.

    I have no earthly idea what "argon changing" is supposed to mean.

    Grammar lesson: "Father" is the object of the preposition παρα. Grammatically it is not doing what you think it is doing.

    The Archangel
     
    #103 The Archangel, Jun 25, 2022
  4. Alan Gross

    Alan Gross Well-Known Member

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    JesusFan is a 'real' Christian ? Cool.
     
    #104 Alan Gross, Jun 25, 2022
  5. Alan Gross

    Alan Gross Well-Known Member

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    Thank God for real Christians.
     
    #105 Alan Gross, Jun 25, 2022
  6. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    More addressing behavior and avoiding like the plague any useful on topic commentary. Every post has been to put forward absolute and profound falsehood. Para can be translated as sent by or sent away when the meaning is as in John 1:14
     
    #106 Van, Jun 25, 2022
  7. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    Nope. And... you must have missed this post:

    The Archangel
     
    #107 The Archangel, Jun 25, 2022
    • Winner Winner x 2
  8. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    Maybe you missed this one, too:


    The Archangel
     
    #108 The Archangel, Jun 25, 2022
  9. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    I do not view jesus as being the Son of God as say a Muslim or Mormon does, as that would indeed be heresy, that God and Mary had to have sex, just saying that His sonship started in Incarnation, as before that was the Logos of God the father!
     
    #109 JesusFan, Jun 26, 2022
  10. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    You can believe and proclaim obvious falsehood till the cows come home, Logos carries out the purpose of the Father from all eternity, and thus His "sonship" is from all eternity.
     
    #110 Van, Jun 26, 2022
  11. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    John 1:14 (interpretative translation)
    And Logos (the Second Person of the Trinity) became human (God incarnate), and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory (glory as the Son of God, the Lamb of God, the Christ, Messiah and Savior, the image of God and as the Good Shepherd, caring for and nurturing His sheep) as the uniquely divine Son sent from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    1) Did anyone claim Logos is not the Second Person of the Trinity?
    2) Did anyone claim became flesh does not mean became 100% human?
    3) Did anyone claim the glory of Jesus is not as "the Son of God, the Lamb of God, the Christ, Messiah and Savior, the image of God, and as the Good Shepherd, caring for and nurturing His sheep?
    4) Yes some claimed being "monogenes" did not mean being "uniquely divine as God incarnate." But they were wrong.
    5) Yes, one self proclaimed Greek grammar expert indicated the Greek preposition "para" could not be translated as "sent from!" But he was wrong according to several published translations which render "para" as sent from or sent by

    Does anyone care to indicate what alternate or additional insights they have gleamed from study of John1:14?
     
    #111 Van, Jun 28, 2022
  12. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    Both of these statements are still falsehoods on your part.

    The Archangel
     
    #112 The Archangel, Jun 28, 2022
  13. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    John 1:14 (interpretative translation)
    And Logos (the Second Person of the Trinity) became human (God incarnate), and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory (glory as the Son of God, the Lamb of God, the Christ, Messiah and Savior, the image of God and as the Good Shepherd, caring for and nurturing His sheep) as the uniquely divine Son sent from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    1) Did anyone claim Logos is not the Second Person of the Trinity?
    2) Did anyone claim became flesh does not mean became 100% human?
    3) Did anyone claim the glory of Jesus is not as "the Son of God, the Lamb of God, the Christ, Messiah and Savior, the image of God, and as the Good Shepherd, caring for and nurturing His sheep?
    4) Yes some claimed being "monogenes" did not mean being "uniquely divine as God incarnate." But they were wrong.
    5) Yes, one self proclaimed Greek grammar expert indicated the Greek preposition "para" could not be translated as "sent from!" But he was wrong according to several published translations which render "para" as sent from or sent by

    Does anyone care to indicate what alternate or additional insights they have gleamed from their study of John1:14?
     
    #113 Van, Jun 28, 2022
  14. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    So, are you now calling me a "false teacher?"

    The Archangel
     
    #114 The Archangel, Jun 28, 2022
  15. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    I haven't "said" it was false, I've demonstrated it to be so. You have never engaged with my posts here and here. You've just said (using your accusatory words) "taint so."

    The Archangel
     
    #115 The Archangel, Jun 28, 2022
  16. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    In what manner was Christ "from" (para) the Father? If we let scripture explain scripture, then John 7:29 is on point:
    “I do know Him, because I am from Him, and He sent Me.” ​

    So the idea of para in this usage is to be provided by the Father for His purpose.
     
    #116 Van, Jun 28, 2022
  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    John 1:14 (interpretative translation)
    And Logos (the Second Person of the Trinity) became human (God incarnate), and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory (glory as the Son of God, the Lamb of God, the Christ, Messiah and Savior, the image of God and as the Good Shepherd, caring for and nurturing His sheep) as the uniquely divine Son sent from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    1) Did anyone claim Logos is not the Second Person of the Trinity?
    2) Did anyone claim became flesh does not mean became 100% human?
    3) Did anyone claim the glory of Jesus is not as "the Son of God, the Lamb of God, the Christ, Messiah and Savior, the image of God, and as the Good Shepherd, caring for and nurturing His sheep?
    4) Yes some claimed being "monogenes" did not mean being "uniquely divine as God incarnate." But they were wrong.
    5) Yes, one self proclaimed Greek grammar expert indicated the Greek preposition "para" could not be translated as "sent from!" But he was wrong according to several published translations which render "para" as sent from or sent by

    Does anyone care to indicate what alternate or additional insights they have gleamed from their study of John1:14?
     
    #117 Van, Jun 28, 2022
  18. The Archangel

    The Archangel Well-Known Member

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    So, you're calling me a liar? Show me where what I've posted is false.

    The Archangel
     
    #118 The Archangel, Jun 28, 2022
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Why is "sent from" to be the preferred choice in understanding than just "from?" Because from might refer to being fathered in a created sense, rather than they actual meaning of sending the existing Logos for the Father's purpose.
     
    #119 Van, Jun 28, 2022
  20. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Folks, this poster is totally off topic, trying to make the topic either his purity or my malfeasance , rather than the study of John 1:14. Why he allowed to derail discussion with off topic posts is beyond me.

    John 1:14 (interpretative translation)
    And Logos (the Second Person of the Trinity) became human (God incarnate), and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory (glory as the Son of God, the Lamb of God, the Christ, Messiah and Savior, the image of God and as the Good Shepherd, caring for and nurturing His sheep) as the uniquely divine Son sent from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    1) Did anyone claim Logos is not the Second Person of the Trinity?
    2) Did anyone claim became flesh does not mean became 100% human?
    3) Did anyone claim the glory of Jesus is not as "the Son of God, the Lamb of God, the Christ, Messiah and Savior, the image of God, and as the Good Shepherd, caring for and nurturing His sheep?
    4) Yes some claimed being "monogenes" did not mean being "uniquely divine as God incarnate." But they were wrong.
    5) Yes, one self proclaimed Greek grammar expert indicated the Greek preposition "para" could not be translated as "sent from!" But he was wrong according to several published translations which render "para" as sent from or sent by

    Does anyone care to indicate what alternate or additional insights they have gleamed from their study of John1:14?
     
    #120 Van, Jun 28, 2022
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