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Matthew 26:39
- Thread starter kyredneck
- Start date
There are several OT references to a cup.. There is a cup of wrath (job 21:20); a cup of confusion (Psalms 60:3); a cup of fury (Isaiah 51:17; Jeremiah 25:15) and a cup of judgment that all the nations will have to drink (Psalms 75:8). Not to mention the cups of wrath in Revelation 14:10; 16:19.
We read in Luke 4:14 that the devil departed from Christ 'until an opportune time.' That was surely Gethsemane and Calvary (cf. John 14:30). Our Lord had to drink down the cup of God's wrath on behalf of those whom the Father had given Him. The prospect of suffering and separation from the Father, coupled with the further temptation of Satan oppressed Him to the point when He asked if the cup might not pass Him by, remaining, of course, entirely subservient to the Father's will.
We read in Luke 4:14 that the devil departed from Christ 'until an opportune time.' That was surely Gethsemane and Calvary (cf. John 14:30). Our Lord had to drink down the cup of God's wrath on behalf of those whom the Father had given Him. The prospect of suffering and separation from the Father, coupled with the further temptation of Satan oppressed Him to the point when He asked if the cup might not pass Him by, remaining, of course, entirely subservient to the Father's will.
Matthew 26:39 (NASB)
And He went a little beyond them, and fell on His face and prayed, saying, “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; yet not as I will, but as You will.”
The Greek word "poterion" (G4221) literally means a drinking vessel, but metaphorically refers to :
The accepted view is the cup refers to Christ's pending self sacrifice. We might see this verse as revealing His humanity as we all seek to avoid suffering, pain, and death. But after prolonged prayer, Jesus embraced His "cup."
John 18:11
So Jesus said to Peter, “Put the sword into the sheath; the cup which the Father has given Me, am I not to drink it?”
And He went a little beyond them, and fell on His face and prayed, saying, “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; yet not as I will, but as You will.”
The Greek word "poterion" (G4221) literally means a drinking vessel, but metaphorically refers to :
"metaph. one's lot or experience, whether joyous or adverse, divine appointments, whether favourable or unfavourable, are likened to a cup which God presents one to drink: so of prosperity and adversity"
The accepted view is the cup refers to Christ's pending self sacrifice. We might see this verse as revealing His humanity as we all seek to avoid suffering, pain, and death. But after prolonged prayer, Jesus embraced His "cup."
John 18:11
So Jesus said to Peter, “Put the sword into the sheath; the cup which the Father has given Me, am I not to drink it?”
If you all are implying Christ was asking to circumvent the cross, Matthew 26:53 should disqualify that notion. The Father WOULD HAVE come to His rescue if He had asked.
What is the preposition there?
what does that preposition mean?
what does that preposition mean?
canadyjd
Well-Known Member
The key, imo, is the phrase “if it be possible”
If there is any other way to accomplish redemption, let this cup pass?
This is why I find others views that God saves people without ever hearing the gospel to be so odious. It makes the death of Christ on the cross unnecessary and therefore lessens the importance of His sacrafice.
peace to you
Please, explain what you're asking.
The cup being the cross? I don't think so. I believe the cup was death, and God did indeed cause it to pass, He raised Him from the dead.
How you come to such a conclusion, I don't understand. No one is going to heaven without first being purchased by the blood of Christ, those who've never heard the gospel included.
Twaddle
Putting idiotic words in my mouth is full blown twaddle. You seem unable to actually address what I say, but willingly address what I did not say. That Sir is unabashed twaddle.
canadyjd
Well-Known Member
Start a thread, I'll participate. Let's not derail this thread.
Care to comment on topic?:
canadyjd
Well-Known Member
Note how truth, obvious to those who read post #4, is denied by this poster. Shameful
I agree yet with some thoughts and would like yours relative to mine.
Matt 26:39 KJV And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt.
In chapter 20 V 22 this was stated: But Jesus answered and said, Ye know not what ye ask. Are ye able to drink of the cup that I shall drink of, and to be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with? They say unto him, We are able.
I believe those to be the same cup.
I agree with you that is the cup of suffering unto death and in the days of his flesh he asked a rhetorical question also see Hebrews 5:7 relative to what Jesus believed the Father able to do. Raise him out of the dead not keep him from dying.
The same cup. Suffering unto death. What about the baptism?
I also believe the water baptism of Jesus by John the Baptist to be a picture of the above and beyond.
Matt 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness.
Then he suffered him.
ἀφίησιν I believe that to be an action of Jesus and it pictured death, having been forsaken.
V 16 NKJV When He had been baptized, Jesus came up immediately from the water; and behold, the heavens were opened to Him, and He[fn] saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and alighting upon Him.
καὶ βαπτισθεὶς ὁ Ἰησοῦς and being baptized the Jesus - βαπτισθεὶς Aor Pas Nom Sg m
Baptized with what? Life? Did he have to have life before he could come up? Revisit Matt 20:22 and verse 23
Spot on percho. Heb 5:7:
Who in the days of his flesh, having offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and having been heard for his godly fear, Heb 5:7
His prayer was heard, the cup of death passed, and God delivered Him from the grave.
I believe Christ was impeccable, unable to ask amiss for anything outside the will of God.
I also believe even being The Word made flesh as Romans 8:3 states For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
he was subject to the temptation of the flesh therefore the rhetorical question was of the flesh and was real temptation yet even through that he learned the obedience as stated in Heb 5:8 through being a Son, did learn by the things which he suffered -- the obedience,
I also believe that obedience was the obedience of faith, The faith of Jesus Christ spoken of in Gal 2:16 and elsewhere.
I believe the following is speaking of what Christ experienced in the garden. Heb 12:4 Not yet unto blood did ye resist -- with the sin striving;
Well brethren my wife and I are back from our Alaskan family cruise trip and had a very lovely time... Just let me rest a little Kentucky and I'll give you my thoughts on the matter, meanwhile, I'll let you all chew on this awhile... Brother Glen
John 10:15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.
16 And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.
17 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again.
18 No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.