37818
Well-Known Member
Where and when? You only have your human understanding what you think is God's word.
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There are three views of the Trinity.
- Thread starter 37818
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Think the question is was he the Son from eternity, or was he the word of the father, Logos, who when was incarnated from that time forward was the Son?
Only begotten of the father
37818
Well-Known Member
Unless there are a Trinity of Persons who are God there would be no God. What makes you think the Trinity explanation limits God?
37818
Well-Known Member
Meaning what?
37818
Well-Known Member
Cite the reference and what that means?
Father and Son are a benefactor - beneficiary relationship.
Jesus is the Heir of all things. He is THE Son.
He's also Son of David, Heir to the throne.
Israel was (were, are) sons of Abraham. His beneficiaries.
We are sons of God, joint-heirs with Christ. He is not ashamed to call us brethren. We will share all things together in Him.
Jesus endured the cross for the joy set before Him. That happened in time. Not at His incarnation, but at Calvary.
Jesus was NOT the Son in eternity, for He did not have an inheritance before He endured the cross
canadyjd
Well-Known Member
That is an interesting distinction. Has the 2nd person of the Trinity always existed as God in eternity?
peace to you
The Word was with God and the Word was God
I'm curious.
When you say "2nd Person" ae you puttin 1 ahead of the others? Or better yet, 2 behind another?
Are those rankings?
Can you quote a scripture for your idea of 2nd Person?
He is eternal, never was created
I like and agree,
Heb 1:2 YLT in these last days did speak to us in a Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He did make the ages;
The Word was made flesh and died and was dead for three days.
John 17:5 YLT 'And now, glorify me, Thou Father, with Thyself, with the glory that I had before the world was, with Thee;
Gal 1:1 YLT Paul, an apostle -- not from men, nor through man, but through Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who did raise him out of the dead --
1 Peter 1:21 YLT who through him do believe in God, who did raise out of the dead, and glory to him did give, so that your faith and hope may be in God.
Rom 8:15-17 YLT for ye did not receive a spirit of bondage again for fear, but ye did receive a spirit of adoption in which we cry, 'Abba -- Father.' The Spirit himself doth testify with our spirit, that we are children of God; and if children, also heirs, heirs, indeed, of God, and heirs together of Christ -- if, indeed, we suffer together, that we may also be glorified together.
Phil 2:21 YLT who shall transform the body of our humiliation to its becoming conformed to the body of his glory, according to the working of his power, even to subject to himself the all things.
Did, I Will Be Who I Will Be EX 3:14 send his only begotten Son, I Am John 8:58, The word made flesh John 1:14 into the world through a virgin?
Why was Adam made a little less than the messengers (angels)? To be born again?
Heb 2:5-8 YLT For not to messengers did He subject the coming world, concerning which we speak, and one in a certain place did testify fully, saying, 'What is man (singular), that Thou art mindful of him, or a son of man (singular), that Thou dost look after him? Thou didst make him some little less than messengers, with glory and honour Thou didst crown him, and didst set him over the works of Thy hands, all things Thou didst put in subjection under his feet,' for in the subjecting to him the all things, nothing did He leave to him unsubjected, and now not yet do we see the all things subjected to him,
Heirs of God, heirs together with Christ.
If the Son of Man has not inherited, it, whatever it may be, neither will we.
Also in Hebrews 1 and verse 5
This one pertains to the OP
"I will be His Father, and He will be My Son"
How can anybody look at this prophecy, read "will be" and think this is something that's always been?
If "Son" denoted something from eternity, then God misspoke by saying it was still to come
canadyjd
Well-Known Member
The use of “2nd person” is not a ranking but merely a method of distinction between the three persons within the Godhead.
God has revealed Himself to be One God, but three distinct persons: Father, Word, Holy Spirit.
When God the Word took on flesh and was born the man Jesus, we often refer to God as Father, Son, Holy Spirit. Hebrews 1 refers to the Son among many other passages.
The question is, imo, as God used these words to describe Himself, how accurate are these descriptions. In what way is God “Father”, “Son”, Holy Spirit?
Peace to yoo
37818
Well-Known Member
To be such is to be never begotten. Begotten is a cause. Yahweh means Self Existent. Begotten is never Self Existent. Get it.
timtofly
Well-Known Member
According to you:
God is more than just 3 persons relating to a human with 3 separate parts.
What makes your interpretation any more special than any one else?
John 1, John 3, 1 John 4. Many references of a begotten person from and of God.
37818
Well-Known Member
Hmm. Infinite Persons? But then there is Mark 12:29.
Only begotten refers to never been created, as always existed!
Logos, the Second Person of the Trinity is eternal. Was His role of carrying out God's purpose eternal? Yes. Thus, acting as God's emissary, Logos fulfilled that meaning of the Greek word translated Son.
2. tropically and according to the Hebrew mode of speech (Winer's Grammar, 33 (32)), υἱός with the genitive of a person is used of one who depends on another or is his follower:
timtofly
Well-Known Member
Infinite possibility. Persons is still a limit with our human understanding of what a person is. We are body, soul, and spirit. The image of the three persons. There are also 3 basic dimensions. That is why I pointed out the Trinity is God manifested in this reality. We know nothing of God outside of creation.
37818
Well-Known Member
Understood. Also unBiblical.