Featured Did God predict?

In 1 Peter 1:11 several translations indicate God "predicted" Christ's sufferings. The idea of the translators apparently being God looked into future and told us the future which is known by God.

The other view of course is that God told us what would occur because God would cause it to occur. This is the biblical view.

The Greek word (promartyromai - G4303) is compound and refers to a factual testimony beforehand. Thus if a person said "I planned to rob him" that would be factual testimony beforehand.

When God tells us what will occur in the future, He is telling us what He will accomplish in the future, what He will cause to happen, such as the predetermined plan for Christ's suffering and death.

Too often unstudied believer's buy into "Crystal Ball Theology."

 

Looking at the English translation choices on Biblegateway, I counted 16, including the ESV, NASB, NIV and WEB, that used predict. Another, similarly misleading, term is foretell or foretold which is used by several more translations.

A much better choice would be "declare beforehand."

For example God declares the end from the beginning. (Isaiah 46:10)

 

Not sure what the purpose of your post was. Is it that you are unfamiliar with "Crystal Ball Theology?" Or cannot grasp the difference between predicting and declaring?

Let me try this: To predict is to claim knowledge of the future, but to declare you will cause something to occur is to claim omnipotence.

"He hath not decreed anything, because he foresaw it as future"​

 

It does not as that view is unbiblical "Crystal Ball Theology."

If you have studied say Psalms 14, you know that God looked down upon people to see if there were any righteous. Thus your view requires the fiction that this verse is a mistake. Not the road to understanding.

I present true easily verified from scripture.

 

Sorry Sir but God does not make predictions. He declares what He will accomplish and no plan of God can be thwarted.

Your MW citation in post #5 agreed with the view I presented, not with your unstated view.

If you use a word that has two different meanings, that hinders understanding. So to declare beforehand is according to the dictionary (lexicon) for G4303. As far as my own definition, ask yourself why the KJV uses it?

Let me try this: To predict is to claim knowledge of the future, but to declare you will cause something to occur is to claim omnipotence.

"He hath not decreed anything, because he foresaw it as future"

 

LOL, God who knows everything did look down to see if....

Your effort to claim God's word does not mean what it says is condescending toward those who love God.

 

Folks, note the fiction posters love to agree with their birds of a feather. Did you see a verse or passage cited to support the fiction? Neither did I. God's word contains the declarations of God we can cite and trust.

 

More of the same effort to deny the very words of God. God looked down to see something. Game set and match.
God did say He learned from the response of man, recall "now I know?"

Saying God is unique is non-germane deflection, as His word is true.

Just because God uses figurative language, does not justify ignoring other passages as if figurative.

Pay no attention to those who claim God's word can be nullified, or those who make God's word to no effect by the traditions of men.

 

LOL, your link supported my view!!!

 

Was Christ put to death because God "predicted" it, or was it by the predetermined plan God had declared beforehand? (Isaiah 53:1-5 and Acts of the Apostles 2:23)

Peter 1:11
seeking to know what person or time the Spirit of Christ within them was indicating as He had declared beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glories to follow.