The letter is to the angel at the Church in Laodicea. That's who it's written to. So, who is the angel? Is it an angelic being? The word translated "angel" means messenger. Who is the messenger, God's spokesperson to the Church at Laodicea? Did angels give the sermons and do the teaching? What do you think?
My answer is that the messenger is the elder(s) in the church who give the message from God's word. Will that messenger continue to present a church that has no need for Jesus, or will the church acknowledge it's need. Without Christ, the church is useless, neither hot nor cold. Jesus will spew the church out of his mouth, just as God spewed Israel and Judah out of the promised land. He who has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit is saying to the churches.
So every person in the Laodicean church is saved, even though they don't have the white robes of righteousness, are spiritually blind and poor? By all means, interact with this as you accuse me of eisegesis. I dealt with these statements. You did not. So at the very minimum, your exegesis is incomplete.
Rev. 7:13-14 says, "Then one of the elders answered, saying to me, 'Who are these arrayed in white robes, and where did they come from?' And I said unto him, Sir, thou knowest. And he said to me, These are they which came out of great tribulation, and have washed their robes, and made them white in the blood of the Lamb."
Therefore, in the context of John's Revelation, white robes show salvation. Yet you say those who do not have white robes in Rev. 2 are saved. Who shall I believe, you or the Apostle John?
Yet, here you are, using eisegesis to make this letter be an individual warning to unsaved people who are not even a part of the church. So, yes, you provide wonderful eisegesis.
So I did eisegesis along with famous Greek scholar A. T. Robertson, awesome preachers such as Rice and MacLaren, commentator Alan Johnson, and many others, such as the great Greek scholar Henry Alford (see the next paragraph). Yet you have yet to give me a scholar who agrees with you. Again, give me one commentary,
just one, that agrees with you.
Some call
Alford's Greek New Testament, a technical commentary, the greatest Greek technical commentary in history. He wrote, "Our verse is a striking and decisive testimony to the practical freedom of our will to receive or reject the heavenly Guest: without the recognition of which, the love and tenderness of the saying become a hideous mockery.... This blessed admission of Christ into our hearts will lead to His becoming our guest, ever present with us, and sharing in all our blessing" (Vol. 6, p. 592). Hey, I'm in pretty good company with my "
eisegesis"!!
Another specific question which you have not yet answered: if Rev. 3:20 is not to lost people as well as saved people, then why does Jesus say, "any man..."???
Here's another. If a born again person (as you say it must be) does not ask Christ in, but rejects Him, what does that mean in his life? Does he lose his salvation? What?