Featured What are the specific biblical instructions concerning translating God’s words into other languages

I want to answer this more specifically. Do you not understand that when you give the Gospel to someone in another language, even if they do not have a Bible in their own language, you are translating the Word of God? The Gospel is part of the Word of God. It is clearly stated in the Bible.

If you were to give someone the Gospel in another language, would you then do your best not to quote Scripture in their language for fear your would be translating the Word of God? How then would you give them the Gospel without the Word of God?

 

I only have one question for JD731, in what language or rather languages do you read your bible? It cannot be any of the modern languages can it.

 

I recently got the email prayer bulletin of a young couple who have just recently arrived in Africa to be Bible translators for the N. language. They are also church planters, and learned of several house churches in existence in the tribe.

Lo and behold, they learned of nationals in the house churches who had already begun translating the Bible into their language, but were stymied for lack of resources. My friend is fluent in Hebrew and Greek, and will now serve as the translation leader and consultant for the effort.

So here's my point. That tribe longs for the Word of God in their own language so much that they have already begun translation. Yes, the Bible is the Holy Bible. That is exactly the reason they want it in their language, so that they can draw nigh to God. The idea that the Bible (KJV) is so holy that we must not translate it is absurd in the extreme!!!

 

Folks, here is the link to a video of the tremendous rejoicing of a tribe receiving the Bible the very first time in their very own language:

What in the world kind of Christianity is it that says we should not translate the Bible into the language of that tribe???

If you must, thinking the KJV is inspired, fine then. Translate from the KJV. But get the Word of God into the language of every tribe and tongue, so that all can glorify God.

Rev. 5:9--"And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation."
Rev. 14:6--"And I saw another angel fly in the midst of heaven, having the everlasting gospel to preach unto them that dwell on the earth, and to every nation, and kindred, and tongue, and people."

 

They weep, they leap and dance for joy, they praise God, they pray and thank God, they marvel that at last they have the Word of God in their very own heart language. In short, all that happens glorifies God. How could anyone possible think that it glorifies God to withhold the Word of God from a people in their own language?

 

Your human beliefs can be wrong, and they are wrong when you choose to believe claims that are not true and that are not scriptural. The fact that you believe something does not make it true and scriptural.

Have you in effect made yourself the authority in your human opinions and declarations concerning the KJV? Do you seem to believe that you are an infallible pope in your beliefs so that you assume that none of them can be wrong? Your claims suggest that you are adding to the Scriptures or that you are reading into verses KJV-only opinions that they do not state. You judge unrighteous judgments.

Your English translation does not actually state that it is given by inspiration of God. The KJV itself says that it is the giving of all Scripture to the prophets and apostles that is by the process of inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16, 2 Peter 1:21). 2 Timothy 3:16 does not say that post-NT translating is by the process of giving by inspiration of God. The KJV does not say that its translated words proceeded directly from the mouth of God by inspiration to the KJV translators. If you assume that the word Scripture in 2 Timothy 3:16 includes Bible translations, the "all" would mean that all Bible translations would be given by inspiration of God according to your assumption.

God was just as much in charge or control of Bible translating in 1537 or in 1560 as in 1611 and as in 1982. God does not say that the word of God is bound to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group of Church of England critics in 1611.

 

You obviously have no concept of how difficult it is to translate the Bible. It is incredibly difficult, takes much knowledge and many 1000s of hours.

Now, you say "in the providence of God." I say God called me to translate the Scriptures. What say you?

Either you are talking strictly about English translations (which have been multiplied all out of reason), or this is the most bizarre statement I've ever read on the BB.

Do you ever think at all about missionary translations? So far you've ignored this subject on this thread.

Exactly! So God clearly led me to translate the Bible into Japanese.

 

This is a photo of me in Africa with a Fulani tribesman named Musa (Moses). The Fulani are a nomadic tribe of Western Africa of over 40 million people, but no Bible in their language. I know a young lady who grew up there in a missionary family, learning their language (Fulfulde).

Now she is translating the Word of God into their language. Her missionary father gave me a copy of the Fulfulde "John and Romans" which she has translated. According to the OP, there is no Biblical mandate to translate the Bible into their language. I have given many Scriptures teaching the principle that we must translate the Bible into every language. However, the author of the OP has ignored those Scriptures.

The writer has plowed on, ignoring the Great Commission and the Scriptures in Revelation saying that there will be people from every "tongue" (language) glorifying God. Therefore, the OP is a false flag effort. "Well, I can't find a verse that says, "Thou shalt translate the Scriptures," he says. That's going about it all wrong!

What Scripture says not to translate??? His answer is, well the Bible is holy, and the holy things belong to God. So according to him, we cannot be holy, I suppose. And only the Bible in English can be holy, I suppose. Completely false conclusions.

 

Does a consistent, just application of your own reasoning condemn the making of the 1611 KJV when there were already several good English Bible translations available?

David Daniell wrote: “There were ten new English versions of the Bible or New Testament between Tyndale’s first New Testament in 1526 and the famous King James or Authorised Version of 1611, and all were influential” (Bible in English, p. 126). David Norris noted: “between 1526 and 1611, nine English translations of Scripture of significance were made” (Big Picture, p. 333). Some examples include the following: 1526 and 1534 Tyndale's New Testament, Joyce's New Testament, 1535 Coverdale's Bible, 1537 Matthew's Bible, Coverdale's Latin-English New Testament (1538), Taverner's Bible (1539), the 1539 Great Bible, Coverdale’s revision of Tyndale’s (1549), Bishop Becke's Bible (1551), Richard Jugge's New Testament (1552), Whittingham's New Testament (1557), 1560 Geneva Bible, 1568 Bishops' Bible, Lawrence Tompson's New Testament (1576), and 1611 KJV.

It could be argued that there was more need for an English Bible translation in present-day English in the 1900's than there was need for yet another English Bible translation in 1611.

The English language likely had not changed nearly as much from 1526 or 1535 until 1611 as it had from 1611 until 1982.

Your strawman diversion does not provide support for your human reasoning concerning the KJV. Do you suggest that you speak for the mind of God?

 

Forgive for being slow. I thought the tread was about God not authorizing translations into other languages.

I see now the thread is about God not authorizing translations EXCEPT the 1611 KJV.

Please give a single passage of scripture that states God authorized the KJV?

peace to you

 

Actually just one question JD. I note that you said "it claims it is the word and the words of God and I believe it" but what do you base your belief upon? Note I am not saying that the KJV translation is not an accurate one I am just pointing out that you think it is accurate because they told you so. So you read a translation and it is a translation that has been changed over time.

Mar 16:14-16 KJV 1611

14 Afterward he appeared vnto the eleuen, as they sate at meat, and vpbraided them with their vnbeliefe, and hardnesse of heart, because they beleeued not them, which had seene him after he was risen.
15 And he said vnto them, Goe yee into all the world, and preach the Gospel to euery creature.
16 He that beleeueth and is baptized, shalbe saued, but he that beleeueth not, shall be damned.

Mar 16:14-16 Byzantine Greek
Mar 16:14 ῞Υστερον ἀνακειμένοις αὐτοῖς τοῖς ἕνδεκα ἐφανερώθη, καὶ ὠνείδισε τὴν ἀπιστίαν αὐτῶν καὶ σκληροκαρδίαν, ὅτι τοῖς θεασαμένοις αὐτὸν ἐγηγερμένον οὐκ ἐπίστευσαν.
Mar 16:15 καὶ εἶπεν αὐτοῖς· πορευθέντες εἰς τὸν κόσμον ἅπαντα κηρύξατε τὸ εὐαγγέλιον πάσῃ τῇ κτίσει.
Mar 16:16 ὁ πιστεύσας καὶ βαπτισθεὶς σωθήσεται, ὁ δὲ ἀπιστήσας κατακριθήσεται.

Do you really think the translators of the NKJV, NASB, NIV, ESV did not translate the word of God correctly? But I did note also that you said you read your bible in English but is that not a translation?

 

Title:

So, going back to the OP, as the author keeps trying to get us to do, the question is not phrased correctly. It should be, "What Bible passage or passages mandate the translation of God's words into other languages?"

I have tried to point JD731 to the Great Commission several times, but he has ignored this. I say that the Great Commission implicitly (not explicitly, granted) mandates the translation of God's Word into other languages. I dare JD 731 to answer this.

If, as Matthew 28:20 commands us, we are to teach them "to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you," how in the world are we to do this if we must not translate the Bible into other languages? It is impossible.

Also, I notice that in the OP JD731 says "languages," plural. Therefore, with his OP he is definitely attacking missionary Bible translation. I would like him to say distinctly if he opposes missionaries (even KJVO ones) doing missionary translation. (I'm pretty sure he won't do that, but there it is in his OP: "languages," the plural.)

 

Here is part of what you posted earlier….

Please identify these “few times in history when he transitioning and providing his word…”

Please identify any passage of scripture that will support this claim.

When you identify those “few times in history” and find that passage of scripture to support the claim, please explain why the folks God used for the “transitioning” are better suited for the work of translating than JOJ or any other missionary called by God to bring the gospel to people in their own language.

I will respectfully wait until you directly answer these questions.

peace to you

 

"Translating the scriptures as we have seen it in the last 150 years is an end times doctrine of apostasy and the people who are doing it are not friends of the Christian faith."

Show me a verse, just one, that says translating the scriptures is a sin.

Answer that. Do not try and logically or historically prove anything. Show me a verse.