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Featured Unanswered Questions (Penal Substitution Theory)

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by JonC, Sep 11, 2023.

  1. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I can't speak for Arthur, but it is nothing like my belief or anything I have ever posted.

    I agree with you that there are several faulty arguments against the Penal Substitution Theory of Atonement. There are also several faulty arguments for it and against other positions.

    That is why I have been asking questions.

    I understand the theory. But people here have expressed different understanding of the Penal Substitution Theory. You and Canadyjd , for example, both hold Penal Substitution Theory but you differ in your theories.

    It is a mistake to ignore those differences.

    I point out some things here for you to consider in order for you to hold and defend the best version of your theory.

    As it stands, you have stated that God cannot forgive sins (He can forgive sinners, but not sins as sins must be punished).

    I would word that, when I held Penal Substitution Theory, as God forgiving sinners by taking upon Himself the punishment for our sins.

    This avoids the faulty opposition of "cosmic child abuse" and acknowledged that God forgives men by punishing sins (removing another obstacle).

    You are still left with the fact that Penal Substitution Theory ultimately holds it impossible for God to forgive but this is explained in the propitiation of wrath.

    That narrows down the difference in views.

    Penal Substitution Theory holds that God cannot forgive sins. God can forego punishing sinners.

    Then there will be the issue of punishing sins. If He d cannot forgive sins then sins are not a "things" that can be punished or transfered. To say otherwise is inconsistent.

    Then there is the issue of guilt. If God forgives sinners by punishing another then the guilt remains (God is clearing the guilty).

    You could go to regeneration or re-creation, but then your position up to that point is obsolete (what was accomplished would have been accomplished regardless).
     
  2. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    The problem here is you are reading into Scripture and blending two distinct things when it suits your argument but separating them when it does not.

    Yes, Penal Substitution Theory as you present it (not as @canadyjd presented it) does make God into a partial Savior. That is it's logical conclusion.

    God punishment against sin is multifaceted but includes death. If Christ suffered this in our stead then we would not die (physically). But for some reason God did not accept Jesus' death as our propitiation for that part of His punishment and therefore we have to atone for that portion ourselves by suffering God's punishment of dying.

    The sting of death is removed, but not as you are trying to force.

    If Jesus died to remove the sting of God's punishment but we are still punished for our sins then He is not our substitute and He has not saved us from anything except the sting of punishment. We are still punished.

    There is no way to get around the fact that your view makes Jesus less a Savior and man as atoning in part for his own sins.
     
  3. DaveXR650

    DaveXR650 Well-Known Member

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    A lot has been written I agree and it may be that there are differences. For the record, and feel free to hold me to this, I have read Owen's "The Death of Death in the Death of Christ" and I have not found any point of disagreement with him on the meaning of the atonement. I'm not sure I agree with all his arguments on the extent of the atonement but even there I see what he's trying to do with that and I agree with his purpose (but that's a different subject). It's also possible for me to misstate things but I don't see any of my arguments so far with you that I cannot reference with Owen given time. I don't get with @canadyjd on this privately but I always find his posts sound.
    I would not quibble with that at all. You have substitution, and you have punishment or a penal aspect.
    I don't think that will satisfy those who charge that but I'm not against you saying it that way.
    What advocates of penal substitution are doing here is realizing that God, although completely sovereign and free to do whatever He chooses - does have an identifiable nature, and part of that nature has been revealed to us by scripture. And we know that God hates sin and impurity, and his reaction to that is described as "wrath", which is a word that we as humans can understand. In addition he loves justice and has fabricated the whole realm of his creation with justice as being an attribute of his created order when it functions according to his will. The result then is that God will not simply forgive sin if it would conflict with his own revealed nature. So we have a vicarious atonement. What you consider a silly contradiction, we consider a proper reason for the atoning death of Christ.
    No, God has chosen in his wisdom to have the guilt transferred to the sacrifice. And yes, there could be 20 more threads on imputation, transference of sin vs transference of guilt, did Jesus literally become sin and so on. But there is no reason to go there now.
     
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  4. DaveXR650

    DaveXR650 Well-Known Member

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    I will bring out one aspect when it suits the most precise response to a specific argument. There is no attempt to evade or conflate anything though. But I try not to write a book with each response.
    Honestly, I'm not sure what's going on in your mind but if you could work this out it would help. This fixation you have that if we still physically die then the atonement is not complete is ludicrous. Give the Reformers at least enough credit that they would not have overlooked that. Read Hodge on Romans 5. It's in the other thread. Death can be a consequence and a punishment for sin, it can be for Adam's sin and our own sin, and it can be applied directly by God as a specific punishment for certain sins any time and directly or indirectly by God himself. As a Christian death can even be a great glory to us and even a blessing, leading to a better resurrection. And always, it's for us, a time to be with Christ, as Paul said - he didn't know if he wanted to stay or leave.
    So that's what I mean when I say the sting of death is removed. Death is still there. And everyone who dies can trace that back to the curse that occurred at the time of the fall and also to the fact that we all sin. In that sense it still is a punishment due us that God has chosen not to remove. I'm speculating but I think in His providence our continued life in this world can be a great source of service to Him and a blessing to us and a preparation for the next life. I was reading an early church father a while back and I can't remember which one but in his letters he kept telling his people that he wanted them to pray for him that God would honor him and let him go to Rome and die in the arena as a Christian. They say eventually it did happen as he wished. That would be an example of how physical death changes for a Christian even though he is still under it in this world.
     
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  5. Alan Gross

    Alan Gross Well-Known Member

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    Beautiful.

    I like it!
     
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  6. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    We can agree on a lot because we are saved by the same Christ through the same gospel. We are brothers in that aspect.

    What I am trying my best to do is distill our views to get at where we truly disagree (because we do) and discard those "disagreements" that do not actually exist.

    I believe it is best that you and I examine one another's arguments and views for what they are (not what we may think them to be) and challenge one another.

    That way there is a mutual understanding, each helps the other to develop a more precise argument, and the disagreement is genuine.


    I do believe your position is akin to Owen's.

    I agree that people on both sides will argue falsely against opposing views. Some have accused you of holding to a form of "cosmic child abuse", which demonstrates a lack of understanding on their part. Some have accused my position of not needing the cross or not dealing with sin, which demonstrates an extreme lack of understanding on their past as well.

    We need to get past the fluff, past the posturing, past the obscuring, and down to the meat of the issue.

    Too many just want to play games, fighting for their team rather than truth.



    The Classic view also goes to the complete sovereignty of God. That is essential. It does not bind God to justice but rather views justice as an attribute of God's nature (if God decided to forgive based on eating a plumb that would be just....it wouldn't make sense to me, and I don't think that possible, but if it happened it would fit within His righteousness).

    So going forward let's look at the differences.

    I'll start in a new post
     
  7. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I can explain.

    IF physical death is God's judgment against sin (you say it is) and IF Christ experienced physical death instead of us Then we would not physically die.

    IF we do die then that "punishment" never truly existed, or Christ died needlessly.
     
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  8. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    @DaveXR650

    One important difference is how divine justice is viewed.

    The classic view considers justice to mean that God punished the wicked for their sins. The reason is that sins cannot be punished apart from the actual person who commits the sin. So the focus is on the wicked. God will not clear the wicked. There are two options - either the wicked are punished or the wicked die to sin and are made into new creations in Christ. God is just and the justifier of sinners.

    Penal Substitution Theory takes a different approach. If you have read secular literature from 16th to 17th century then you probably know where I am going (a reviving movement towards crimes being considered crimes against the king, that is "kings peace", retributive in punishment).

    The focus of divine justice shifts from the criminal to criminal actions committed. These must be punished not because they indicate a criminal nature, not even because (in a secular sense) of how they relate to a victim, but because they are crimes. And the crime needs to be punished in order to restore the (secularly) "kings peace" as that is what is ultimately offended.

    So the focus is on criminal actions (actions against God) rather than the guilty person. As long as those actions are punished the guilty is cleared, even if the guilty completely escapes punishment. Hang the wrong man? Doesn't matter. Justice is served.

    We see this when one group has a member killed by another. The victim group demands justice. The guilty group can offer one of their own to be executed even if that one is innocent, as long as the sin is punished.

    Ultimately it is retributive justice vs restorative justice (a focus on sin vs a focus on the sinner). But there are areas of intersection.
     
  9. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    With your view, the wicked aren’t physically dying for their sins. They symbolically dying and becoming new creations.

    So, your theory has a similar problem as PSA.

    With PSA, you claim God is unjust punishing someone other than the sinner for their sin.

    But with your view, God is allowing a sinner to go unpunished by claiming they died for their sin when they really didn’t physically die.

    Additionally, this “new creation” will eventually die. So God can be accused of punishing a person twice for the same sin.

    peace to you
     
  10. RighteousnessTemperance&

    RighteousnessTemperance& Well-Known Member

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    This is hitting on a very important aspect of the mature Christian life. In the call to live for God in Christ, we are called to suffer for doing good, perhaps even to die to God’s glory.

    The apostles especially exemplify this, suffering and dying not for their sins but as righteous witnesses of the truth of the gospel.

    Also, according to Paul not all Christians will die: “ Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord,” (1 Thessalonians 4:17).
     
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  11. DaveXR650

    DaveXR650 Well-Known Member

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    Physical death is one of God's appointed judgments against sin. As I showed in the other thread from Hodge on Romans there are plenty of scriptures that support that. If you read Hodge on Romans chapter 5 and keep reading you get into a lot of theology about the way in which death was passed upon all men and what this means and how the contrasts and parallels work between Adam and Christ. This frankly is beyond my theological ability so what I say here is just my own opinion and I will gladly defer to someone else. But here goes:

    When Adam and Eve sinned God "punished" them in several ways. Pronouncements were made that they would be kicked out of the garden, Eve would suffer in childbirth, Adam would work hard to survive, and eventually they would die and return to the dust. I think scripture clearly indicates that saying that was punishment or judgment or of a penal nature is not stretching the meaning. Now here is where I wasn't joking when I said before that these judgments or penal pronouncements, because they were made by God became universal realities and thus when someone says they were "consequences" if by that they mean universal realities then they are correct. The reality is that the origin of these things was as a consequence for sin and as a punishment for sin. But Adam was our representative "head" in some way and because of that these things, like death, are universal to all of us. So when for instance a baby dies, most of us don't think the baby is directly being punished by God but there is truth in the fact that "death passed upon all men and this death that happens to a baby is truly a result of God's decree due to Adam's sin. And at that point you are over my head theologically.

    So to answer your question, I would simply say that at the fall of man there were universal pronouncements by God, death being one of them which have not been rescinded and will not be until Christ, the Second Adam, returns. People living at that time who are believers will not have to die. There are cosmic aspects to the work of Christ and the idea of our identification with Christ, being found "in Christ" means, among other things, that if you have not physically died at that time you won't have to if you are one of those folks. But I see no reason not to believe that those living at that time have their sin dealt with by Christ in the form of penal substitution just like us though. We all must wait for Christ to come and make all this right. Most of us will probably die before Christ comes but we know we will have no part in the second death. Now, like I said, don't tear into this post too much because what I am stating here is just my relatively uninformed opinion.

    There are indeed aspects of the death and resurrection of our Lord that are beyond what is explained by penal substitution. And I find a lot of value in Torrance's book on the atonement in learning about these. Maybe the charge is even valid that advocates of penal substitution have made is seem like nothing else matters in the death and resurrection of Christ except the one aspect. But not all have done so and even Torrance put penal substitution as essential. It's certainly not false. And I think that you could even make the case that as defining the actual "atoning work of Christ" you simply cannot make too much of it.
     
  12. RighteousnessTemperance&

    RighteousnessTemperance& Well-Known Member

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    This is an important point in general and should be taken to heart.

    Scripture often does not deal with every aspect of a doctrine or truth in a passage. Sometimes it emphasizes one aspect, sometimes another.

    We would all do well to slow down and treat both our own communication between each other and separate passages of scripture with this in mind.
     
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  13. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    You are right. With my view all men (the lost and saved) die as a wage of sin and Jesus died under that same wage (solidarity with us) even though He did not sin.

    That is important because (under my view) God's words eternally stand true. The wages of sin is death. That does not change.

    But you are wrong about this being the same problem Penal Substitution Theory has.

    The reason is I do not believe God's judgment is physical death. I believe physical death is the wage of sin but God's judgment is on the wicked "on that day" (at Judgment).

    Under my view it is appointed to man once to die (physical death as the wage of sin) and then the Judgment (God's divine judgment on the wicked, on the "day of wrath", the "wrath that has been stored until that day").

    The problem does not exist with my view because the classic view makes a distinction between physical death and divine judgment.
     
  14. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Do you know of a passage stating that one part of God's judgment on sin is poured out on the list and the saved prior to the Day of Judgment and another part is poured out only on the wicked at Judgment?

    I ask because it appears we are quickly straying from the Bible with your theory and venturing into trying to save a philosophy.


    One problem is you say that death is one part of God's judgment against sin, a part that Jesus suffered, but also a part that we experience.

    So Jesus may have suffered a part of God's judgment on sin instead of us but (per your view) Jesus did not die instead of us (we still suffer that part of God's judgment on sin).

    Now you also have God punishing Jesus with death but NOT as our substitute. That makes God unjust, inflicting on Jesus a punishment unrelated to judging our sin (as we experience that one part of "God's appointed judgments against sin."

    It also means we atone for one part of God's appointed judgement against sin by experiencing death. So Jesus stones for one part and we atone for another.
     
  15. DaveXR650

    DaveXR650 Well-Known Member

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    There probably is no verse that states both truths in the same verse. But I think we have been over the fact that that is a faulty way to look at scripture. Genesis chapter 3 explains in great detail exactly what God's judgement was on the sin of Adam and Eve. That those things are in effect simply cannot be denied as they are universally true to this day. There are multiple verses that link doing evil or sin with death and there are examples of God directly causing death as an immediate judgement in certain circumstances. There are other verses that talk of people treasuring up future wrath by continuing in sin. That's not straying from the Bible and there is no philosophy that needs saving.
     
  16. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    That is because both are not truths to be put into one doctrine (you are combining two things as one).

    The wages of sin is death but the gift of God is life.

    Death is produced by sin (it is the consequence of sin, what we earn, the curse). It's author is Satan, not God. We earn death by sinning as a wage.

    But the gift of God is life in Christ Jesus, in whom there is no condemnation. In Him we escape the wrath to come (this is God's wrath stored up "until that day" to be poured out on the wicked at Judgment).

    All men are under the curse. All earn the wages of sin, authored by Satan in the Garden. Christ submitted Himself to being made a curse for us, to "sharing our infirmity", to putting Himself under the wages of sin although He had no sin. And He suffered and died under the powers authored by Satan.

    But Christ overcame the powers of sin and death through obedience. He fulfilled the righteousness of God, and He inherited the Old Covenant blessings as the Son of Man. He is true Israel, the "Second Adam", the Firstborn of many brethren.

    We see this in Genesis 3.

    Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity
    Between you and the woman,
    And between your seed and her seed;
    He shall bruise you on the head,
    And you shall bruise him on the heel.”


    The separate things you are combining is the work of Satan (death as a product of sin) and the work of God (the gift of life).

    Satan is the one who bruises (crushes) Christ heel.

    Christ is the one who bruises (crushes) Satan's head.

    Satan authors Christ's suffering and death under the wages of sin, under the curse, by the predetermined plan of God. It is not a fatal blow, for Christ crushes Satan's head, is victorious over sin and death freeing us from its bonds and removing its sting (although we die so also shall we live in Christ Jesus).

    Forgiveness is based on Christ's obedience, obtained through repentance.

    Then there is God's judgment of the wicked. This is not deciding if they are guilty (they are already condemned) but an exercise of judgment (passing the sentence). This is at Judgment. Those who have by faith been made new creations in Christ are not condemned. They have died to sin, they no longer have a mind set on the flesh. They are, in Christ, righteous based on His righteous (clothed in His righteousness) and are ultimately made like Him.
     
  17. DaveXR650

    DaveXR650 Well-Known Member

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    A couple of things. The post above (76) first of all is NOT what Arthur was saying. But that's beside the point. I basically agree with most of what you say there.
    A minor quibble here. What is the curse? It is a pronouncement by the creator of the universe and absolute ruler of it, of woe that will be pronounced upon the one who rebels. Therefore the origin and responsibility of that setup is God. In his wisdom, we have it revealed to us that somehow, Satan has power over death as described in scripture but it is also clear that God himself remains sovereign in this as shown in multiple verses. But you are correct and I think groups of Christians outside of my tribe are correct when they look more into the cosmic factors and kingdom factors involved with God and Satan than we do. Although in fairness, even Owen goes into this in surprising detail also.
    I would just add that when Christ is put under the wages of sin, sin that was not his in any way but ours then it is proper to say he suffered vicariously or instead of us those wages no matter how you word it. And while true that the direct actors were acting under Satan in this, in a providential sense the Triune God had engineered and planned this as scripture plainly teaches and as you say elsewhere in the same post.
    I would add, not in a sense of controversy, but just in addition, that fulfilling the righteousness of God means that he fulfilled all the claims of the Law and as said above it was for us. And in the Law is do this and live and don't do this and die. That was God's pronouncement.
    As long as you have that last part in it, "under the curse, by the predetermined plan of God", I have no objection.
    Here again, yes. But don't forget exactly what this obedience consisted of. Christ shedding his blood and dying in our place and for our transgressions. Our repentance and faith would be of no actual value were that not true. That's what I mean when I say penal substitution is at the core. The above is also what I am referring to when I say that what you presented in the above post is totally alright with me IF the lack of mention of penal substitution is because you simply can't exhaustively say everything each time you explain something. But it the omission is designed to deliberately omit penal substitution because it is opposed you need to know that Owen, most reformed theologians, most Baptist theologians are on record as declaring such teaching a damnable heresy. It would be like if someone were to preach a gospel message and not once mention the virgin birth. It could be just omitted for the sake of brevity or the maturity of the hearers and thus should not be a problem. But if it is omitted because of a conscious rejection of what that truly means to Christ's qualifications to act as our redeemer then it would be a serious heresy.
     
  18. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I understand what you are saying here, but I believe that you are relying a bit on presuppositions to apply a specific and narrow definition of the word.

    By curse I was referring to “a cause of great harm”. Things that men do are often meant as a curse but God uses it for good. Things that men do often becomes a curse. I did not mean the word in the sense you took it (God or man uttering a curse type of thing).

    That was just miscommunication, and my fault for not clarifying as the word has a very broad range of meaning. My apologies on that one.
    I would clarify here as well.


    Christ was not put under the wages of sin, but submitted Himself to come under the wages of sin. Yes, these were consequences that He did not earn (He is sinless). I would not say that he suffered vicariously or instead of us those wages. That is not correct.

    He suffered what we suffer in order to free us from its bondage, to remove its sting. It is solidarity (unity; reconciliation of man and God in the Person of Christ Jesus).

    He suffered the wages of OUR sin. This was not in our place (instead of us) but as a representative (what is called “representative substitution”) of man (think “Son of Man”).

    I do agree that Christ suffered and died according to the predetermined plan of God and as an act of obedience to God. But this does not mean that it was God who was punishing Christ. When we take it that far we miss the point of the Cross entirely.
    I agree and disagree (go figure). We also have to remember that we are talking about the righteousness of God made manifest apart from the Law. Too often we associate divine righteousness with the Law, either as a part of the Law or somehow eternally linked with the Law. But if this is true then God’s righteousness can never stand apart from the Law.

    That said, I agree that Christ inherited the blessings of the Old Covenant through His obedience to God (His obedience even to death on the Cross). This is where Adam failed (his disobedience not to eat the fruit of the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil).
    Yes, that is important. Too often in disagreements over atonement things are completely ignored (like that it was God’s pleasure to crush Him, which Scripture also states in Acts as “God’s predetermined plan”.


    I have to point out that you are adding to Scripture with this statement. What does the Bible say that Christ’s obedience consisted of?


    Does the Bible say “Christ shedding his blood and dying in our place and for our transgressions”? No, it does not. I am not sure that you intentionally made the addition or if you were simply typing off the top of your head.


    Scripture tells us that this obedience was Christ emptying “Himself by taking the form of a bond-servant and being born in the likeness of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death: death i]">[on a cross. For this reason also God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus every knee will bow, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.


    This obedience was becoming one of us, “sharing our infirmity”. Nowhere in the Bible is this obedience defined as “Christ shedding his blood and dying in our place and for our transgressions”. Instead Scripture tells us that Christ’s obedience is exactly what I have been describing over the past several threads – this unity or solidarity with man, reconciling God and mankind in the person of Christ Jesus.


    On this, I can clarify.

    It is true that we do not mention every single thing each time we post in a discussion. For example, you mention here that the Virgin Birth is true. But you did not mention on this thread that it was also important that Christ be born of a virgin. We simply focus on our direct arguments. So I get your point on that and agree. An omission from a post should not be considered an omission in belief or doctrine.

    BUT here I have made a conscious rejection of Penal Substitution Theory. The reason is I do believe it a serious heresy. By heresy I do not mean something that excludes somebody from salvation or from being a Christian but instead a serious error and addition to God’s Word that alters what is actually written and revealed in Scripture to be true.

    Do I know that Owen considered omitting Penal Substitution Theory to be a damnable heresy? Yes (I did at one time as well). But Owen also considered refraining from baptizing infants (infants of believers) as a damnable heresy. So you and I would be heretics per Owen.

    That does not bother me as Owen is not my authority. And, of course, Penal Substitution has been called a heresy by many as well (many Baptists, BTW). So that is neither here nor there. We can both point to men who think the other affirms heresy. What matters is God and God’s Word. That is where I have to stand on that.
     
  19. canadyjd

    canadyjd Well-Known Member

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    Please help me understand your view. Are you saying the reason Christ died was simply to show “solidarity” with sinners. That sounds similar to an”example” view. That Christ simply gave us an example to follow. Is that what you are saying?

    peace to you
     
  20. DaveXR650

    DaveXR650 Well-Known Member

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    Faith:
    Baptist
    I like to use Owen in these discussions because he is respected by all, and whether you agree with him or not, when he explains a position it is usually agreed that that is the definitive answer for that view. He is thorough, so when he describes something it is always exhaustive (even exhausting), and he presents the whole opposing argument right there in his work so it's easy to see why he says what he says. But I have often said that I think it's almost funny to see these tattooed YRR folks quoting Owen. I don't think we would last a month back in time and in his church. They would be piling up wood out back and it wouldn't be for the pig roast.
     
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