What's absurd in that ? It is literal understanding.
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Where Does the Bible Say that the Church Will be Removed From Tribulation?
- Thread starter taisto
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Sorry, should have read "So what sort of literalism do you believe?"
Agreed on the last day.
John 11:24 Martha said to him, “I know that he will rise again in the resurrection on the last day.”
And what else happens on the last day?
John 12:48 The one who rejects me and does not receive my words has a judge; the word that I have spoken will judge him on the last day.
John 12:48 He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day. kjv.
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I fail to understand your question. Can you clarify?
OK that is clearer but I need more information. Are you under the understanding that there are multiple kinds of literalism?
37818
Well-Known Member
2 Peter 3:8-13 >> Revelation 20:1-15 > Revelation 21:1.
The problem here is you are equating two different things based on the use of the same word. This is part of a word study fallacy that says it always means the same thing and or is in reference to the exact same thing.
Obvious. When I said The SGAT said that prophecy should be read not interpreted, you said "That's absurd " but that is literalism, so what sort of literalism do you believe if you think that is absurd?
You did not answer my question.Are you under the understanding that there are multiple kinds of literalism?
Thanks, I know the scripture, but what is your point?
I did answer your question, but let's put it another way,
Do you believe an absolute literalism?
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I will give some examples. My dad went to a prophecy meeting many years ago and the speaker said that the 200,000,000 million horsemen were Literal horsemen, not cars, not tanks etc.
Do you belelve that?
My previous pastor said that Babylon in Revelation is Literal Babylon,
Do you belelve that?
Do you believe that the two witnesses in Revelation are 2 Literal people, or do you think they are two Literal candlesticks, or two Literal olive trees?
For example.
37818
Well-Known Member
Well, a number of things can. The two that come to mind.
2 Peter 3:8-13 can be said to be a "telescopic" view of future events as being seen from afar. And Revelation 20:1- Revelation 21:1 being those future events.
This is the problem. You do not, like the other fella, know what it means to interpret the Bible literally. You guys make bad arguments because of this and ask questions such as this.
When one interprets the Bible literally it does nothing to take away from the genre of the language. To interpret the Bible in a wooden literal sense, of which no real student of scripture does, is to miss this. However, where prophecy and apocalyptic language is concerned we know that what is being said represents something literal. In contrast parables are meant to convey a principle or idea. The book of Revelation is meant to convey actual literal events not simply ideas. All of the prophecies of Christ and things surrounding Him were fulfilled literally. The book of Revelation is about Him and His work in this world at a specific time. The descriptive language in Revelation communicates literal events not principles or ideas. It communicates things about literal people not principles of ideas. That is the genre of Revelation. To interpret it allegorically is to miss its genre. Since the people and events are intended to communicate literal events and people that is the literal interpretation.
Further, The literal interpretation also interprets the book of Genesis literally meaning Adam and Eve were literally people who God literally fellowshipped with as literally described in scripture. The enmity between the seeds is not allegorical language but represents literal people and a literal conflict between them. The events surrounding the return of Christ are literal events not simply spiritual. Now whether one agrees with that should not affect the ability to understand that. How one who studies scripture doesn't already know these things is beyond me.
37818
Well-Known Member
@David Kent,
All interpretation begins with the [literal] meaning of words. From which one decides how one is going to understand those words.
All interpretation begins with the [literal] meaning of words. From which one decides how one is going to understand those words.
Well i don't call that literal. I call that Symbolic, which is what I believe. A symbol represents an actual event, person, people or place, but you call it allegorical, scripture calls it figure or parable. Parables are to hide the intent from the unbeliever but being made known to the believer.
Genesis one that you quoted is not a prophecy, so it has no need to be interpretated.
How do you interpret literally the exaples I gave you?
Well either this is unintelligible or you failed to understand anything I posted. I will leave you to it. God bless.
I am trying to understand you.
Please can you give your literal interpretation of one of those examples that I gave you. Revelation chapter 9 for instance which is a graphic illustration of a people and their actions.
Revmitchell, I understand you cannot defend your position. I understand your position and David Kent has clearly understood your position.
You can leave the conversation, but note that you have not provided any substantial argument for the removal of the church before the Tribulation. Certainly, it is not found in Revelation as every chapter in Revelation shows us the Church as it goes through the Tribulation.
Have you heard of Gematria? It is a method of using numbers to convey symbols in ancient writings. Matthew uses it in Matthew 1:17. If you do a literal counting of the generations you will see that Matthew left out some people. Have you ever asked why? Why wasn't Matthew being literal?
So all the generations from Abraham to David were fourteen generations, and from David to the deportation to Babylon fourteen generations, and from the deportation to Babylon to the Christ fourteen generations.
John employs Gematria throughout the entire letter of Revelation. Why did John do this? There is a reason.
Thanks for asking Revmitchell to do this. I don't think he can do this as it would require him to go outside of the box created by Francisco Rivera, Manuel Lacunza, and John Darby.
The two genealogies in Matthew and Luke give different lines from David, one through Solomon and one through Nathan, but Zerobabel appears in both. obviously not literal.
Zerobabel and his father seem to have been inserted by Matthew in place of someone else.
On the other hand neither seem to agree with1Chronicles 3:19 And the sons of Pedaiah were, Zerubbabel, and Shimei: and the sons of Zerubbabel; Meshullam, and Hananiah, and Shelomith their sister
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