All made sinners?

Romans 5:12:
Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned-- (NASB)

Romans 5:19
For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous.


Every translation I have found translates these in a similar way, ending with "because all sinned" indicating all humans sinned. However, another verse (Romans 9:11) indicates that babies in the womb have done nothing good or bad. However, abortion has murdered millions of these who had not done anything bad and therefore were not every guilty of either a sin of commission or a sin of omission.

So what does God's inspired word mean when we are said to be made sinners and all sinned?

Two answers have been postulated, they had sinned because they were "guilty" of Adam's sin. However, this seems to violate the teaching that God does not punish the son for the sins of the father. The other, as a consequence of Adam's sin, all humans are "made sinners" and thus the correct understanding of Romans 5:12 is all are in a sinful separated from God state. However, that is not what the verse seems to say. Rather it clearly says we seem to have done something amiss.

Does anyone have an answer to this difficulty?

A solution to this dilemma is to consider that "sin" refers to both of its aspects, the action or thought or omission
and the consequence God imposes for the miss. Thus if "we have sinned means we have been made forfeiters of togetherness with God, then we can say "because all have forfeited.

 

You are right, many will reject your view as unbiblical.
1) Yes, Adam is the first man, and due to his volitional sin, we were all "made sinners."
2) The issue is whether our minds, while unregenerate, are "always" set on fleshly desires, worldly treasures, or snares of Satan. The biblical answer is no, we can consider our "fallen nature" and desire a spiritual nature. Romans 7.
3) Because we are made "sinners" we have all "forfeited" our union with God, being separated from God, thus conceived in a sinful state of being spiritually "dead."

 

I generally agree, with one nitpick caveat: The effects of sin are already present in our human spirit, as the effects of the fall are passed spiritually, not biologically. I know many think that Adam and Eve before the Fall were immortal physically but then became mortal due to the curse of the Fall. However, since Angels do not marry as there is no need for reproduction, but humans before the Fall, Genesis 1:28, were told to multiply, scripture indicates Adam and Eve were mortal even before the Fall.

 

I supported my view with Genesis 1:28. Where is your support other than the traditions of men?

 

I explained that already!!! Please address human reproductive capacity not pointing to mortality!!!

 

Personal incredulity is fallacious argumentation.

Folks, scripture points to Adam and Eve being able to procreate (even before the Fall) which suggests the need for spawning new life in the face of death (even before the Fall).

 

LOL, why did Jesus say Angels do not marry? How long do Angels live?

 

Why did the "before the Fall" Adam (and Eve) have the capacity to reproduce? Certainly plant death existed before the Fall as Adam ate plants. The "death" that entered humanity (Romans 5:12) due to Adam's sin is our spiritual death, our separation from God. Anything additional is simply a speculative hypothesis.

 

We disagree. Your view expands the meaning beyond spiritual death, separation from God. Since death (plant death at a minimum) already existed in Adam's physical realm, for death to enter must refer to spiritual death.

For you to say "physical death" rather than spiritual death is simply speculation. We know sin causes spiritual death.

Finally, we know the Adam would not live forever unless he ate from the tree of life.