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The omission of in the land of Canaan. KJV and most modern Bibles from the main body of the text.What are they saying is in error?
The omission of in the land of Canaan. KJV and most modern Bibles from the main body of the text.
Various numbers noted in the OT are often perplexing.
I choose to accept the numbers without a full understanding of how they were originally interpreted by the audience to whom they were written.
This certainly isn't a KJV issue as the title implied.
I'm not going to spend any time watching a video that might say it is.
Most commentaries (at least EVERY ONE I've looked at) simply attempt to explain the difficulty without changing the Hebrew text.
There are a number of DSS copies of Exodus; those that contain the passage include the "430" number (without the plus of Canaan).
Textual Critics of the OT have maintained their support of the MT;
Researchers say the evidence for text of the SamPent and LXX readings being original is not convincing.
Various numbers noted in the OT are often perplexing.
I choose to accept the numbers without a full understanding of how they were originally interpreted by the audience to whom they were written.
Rob
You are not hearing the KJV issue. The fact the KJV uses the defective reading.This certainly isn't a KJV issue as the title implied.
I'm not going to spend any time watching a video that might say it is.
Most commentaries (at least EVERY ONE I've looked at) simply attempt to explain the difficulty without changing the Hebrew text.
There are a number of DSS copies of Exodus; those that contain the passage include the "430" number (without the plus of Canaan).
Textual Critics of the OT have maintained their support of the MT;
Researchers say the evidence for text of the SamPent and LXX readings being original is not convincing.
Various numbers noted in the OT are often perplexing.
I choose to accept the numbers without a full understanding of how they were originally interpreted by the audience to whom they were written.
Rob
You do not offer a responsible view of biblical inerrancy.You are not hearing the KJV issue. The fact the KJV uses the defective reading.
If we accept the now common Hebrew text as original, throws Biblical inerrancy out.
I believe in the verbal, plenary written God breathed word of God.You do not offer a responsible view of biblical inerrancy.
...which deals with the inspiration of Scripture.I believe in the verbal, plenary written God breathed word of God.
Psalms 119:89, For ever, O LORD, thy word is settled in heaven.
Not the reader.
Not the translator.
Not the copyists.
So does the KJVonlism claims....which deals with the inspiration of Scripture.
What are they saying is in error?
The omission of in the land of Canaan. KJV
and most modern Bibles from the main body of the text.
Because it is not true if Galatians 3:17 is true.This is what Exodus 12:40 states in the KJV;
Exodus 12:40; "Now the sojourning of the children of Israel,
who dwelt in Egypt, was four hundred and thirty years."
What's wrong with that?
You are not being responsible.I need to know if you are saying that
the ENTIRELY of THE SOJOURNING of the CHILDREN of ISRAEL,
anywhere and everywhere that they WENT and SOJOURNED,
WHICH IS SAID IN EXODUS 12:40,
TO HAVE BEEN THREE HUNDRED AND FORTY YEARS,
"Now the sojourning of the children of Israel" (12:40a),
"was four hundred and thirty years" (12:40c)
is What you are saying "is not true"
COMPARED to GALATIANS 3:17...?:
"...the covenant,
that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law,
which was four hundred and thirty years after..."
Because Exodus 12:40 ONLY SAYS THIS:
"Now the sojourning of the children of Israel" (12:40a),
that
the ENTIRELY of THE SOJOURNING of the CHILDREN of ISRAEL,
anywhere and everywhere that they WENT and SOJOURNED;
"was four hundred and thirty years" (12:40c).
...
Do you see where I am saying that Exodus 12:40
IS NOT SAYING ANYTHING ABOUT THE CHILDREN of ISRAEL
"SOJOURNING IN EGYPT", AT ALL,
or FOR ANY PERIOD of TIME MENTIONED, for example?
Exodus 12:40 IDENTIFIES "the children of Israel"
as being those people "WHO DWELT IN EGYPT";
when it says,
"the children of Israel" (12:40a)
= "who dwelt in Egypt"(12:40b)
But Exodus 12:40 DOES NOT SAY;
"the children of Israel" (12:40a)
≠ "who SOJOURNED in Egypt"
four hundred and thirty years" (12:40c).
...
Do you see where Exodus 12:40
Does Not Indicate that:
"the children of Israel" "were in Egypt"
FOR ANY PERIOD of TIME NOTED ANYWHERE WHATSOEVER???
You are not being responsible.
Jesuit agents attempted to thwart the English Bible
before its release by insisting that the Apocrypha be included in it.