Silverhair
Well-Known Member
Yes it does, it doesnt teach you
Where do you get that silly idea that some were never lost BF? The bible tells all have sinned so if they have sinned they wold be under the wrath of God.
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Yes it does, it doesnt teach you
Thats Christ saving responsibility to give repentance. Why did God exalt Him according to Acts 5:31
Its Christs responsibility to save them all, what u dont understand about that?So are you saying all the lost will be saved BF?
Christ is responsible to save that which was lost Lk 19:10Where do you get that silly idea that some were never lost BF? The bible tells all have sinned so if they have sinned they wold be under the wrath of God.
It's Christ responsibility to give repentance as Savior, that is why God highly exalted Him Acts 5 31Are you saying that Christ repents for them BF?
You really are not very clear in your posts.
2 Thess. 2:132 Thessalonians 2:13 is a compound sentence, with subjects, verbs, direct and indirect objects.
We should always give thanks to God for you as beloved by the Lord.
Subject, =We; Verb = should give thanks, direct object = God; indirect object for you the beloved.
We should give thanks to God for you as our siblings in Christ!
Why?
Because God has chosen you.
Subject = God; Verb = has chosen; direct object = you.
The remaining phrases are indirect objects describing aspects of the action upon the recipient.
When was the action of choosing performed? From the beginning of the New Covenant
What was the purpose of the action? For salvation
Why does "from the beginning" refer to "from the beginning of the New Covenant," and NOT from the beginning of creation? Answer, no one was chosen by being spiritually transferred into Christ before Christ died. Recall Abraham's bosom, and Jesus declaring no one, not one OT saint, had gone up to Heaven before He came to earth.
What were the instrumental factors? Through sanctification by the Spirit and faith in the truth.
Election was accomplished by transferring the person from the realm of darkness into Christ.
The basis of the choice was God crediting the faith of the individual as righteousness.
Thus we were NOT saved because of our faith, our faith only allowed God to credit it or not. Our faith did not deserve salvation or merit salvation, the accreditation was a act of mercy and grace. Salvation does NOT depend upon the person who wills, but upon God who has mercy.
Not to put too fine a point on it, but 2 Thessalonians 2:13 clearly teaches certain beliefs from the dark ages are false.
First, rather than Unconditional Election, scripture teaches we were chosen through faith in the truth, thus a conditional election.
Next, to be individually chosen through faith in the truth means we had come to faith BEFORE we were chosen, therefore during our physical lifetime after we had heard and learned from the Father, and NOT before we were created.
But what about Ephesians 1:4 which says we were chosen before the foundation of the world? Since as individuals we were "drawn" by the Father before we came to Christ, we were not chosen before we were drawn. Because we once were "not a people" we were not chosen to be a people before we lived as not a people. Because once we had not "received mercy" we were not individually chosen before we lived having not received mercy. Because once we were children of wrath, we were not yet the chosen children of God, precluding being individually chosen before creation.
So just how were we chosen before the foundation of the world? Corporately! When God chose individually "Logos" to be His "Lamb of God," His Redeemer before the foundation of the world, He chose corporately all those His Redeemer would redeem. His gracious choice of our Redeemer before creation therefore granted us who are now in Christ grace from all eternity. Those who would be redeemed were to have a common trait, believers whose faith God would credit as righteousness.
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Just posting scripture without explaining how the post adds to the discussion is not useful.2 Thess. 2:13
13 Ἡμεῖς δὲ ὀφείλομεν εὐχαριστεῖν τῷ θεῷ πάντοτε περὶ ὑμῶν, ἀδελφοὶ ἠγαπημένοι ὑπὸ κυρίου, ὅτι εἵλατο ὑμᾶς ὁ θεὸς ἀπαρχὴν εἰς σωτηρίαν ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος καὶ πίστει ἀληθείας,
13. But we must always give thanks to God for you, brothers and sisters {Gk [brothers]} beloved by the Lord, because God chose you as the first fruits for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and through belief in the truth. (NRSV)
13. But we ought to give thanks to God for you always, brothers loved by the Lord, because God chose you as the firstfruits for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in truth. (NAB)
Perhaps I may put a different point of view here? ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς is found in several hundred ancient Greek MSS, while ἀπαρχήν is found, I believe, in 16. Interestingly, Codex Sinaiticus has the former, while Codex Vaticanus gives the latter. Usually they are united.Next rather than "from the beginning" of the New Covenant, we see "chosen as first fruits" based on a variant text. Here is the NET Bible footnote:
Several mss (B F G P 0278 33 81 323 1739 1881 al bo) read ἀπαρχήν (aparchn, “as a first fruit”; i.e., as the first converts) instead of ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς (ap’ arch", “from the beginning,” found in א D Ψ Ď it sa), but this seems more likely to be a change by scribes who thought of the early churches in general in this way. But Paul would not be likely to call the Thessalonians “the first fruits” among his converts. Further, ἀπαρχή (aparch, “first fruit”) is a well-worn term in Paul’s letters (Rom 8:23; 11:16; 16:5; 1 Cor 15:20, 23; 16:15), while ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς occurs nowhere else in Paul. Scribes might be expected to change the text to the more familiar term. Nevertheless, a decision is difficult (see arguments for ἀπαρχήν in TCGNT 568), and ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς must be preferred only slightly.
I don't think this is so. 'In the beginning was the Word' (John 1:1); 'I am the Alpha and Omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the Last' (Rev. 22:13). Col.1:18 is making the point that our Lord is not only the beginning, but also the firstborn from the dead, '...that in all things [not just one] He might have the preeminence.' V.17 makes the same point, '... And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist.'JD731 said:The beginning is defined in Col 1:18 if anyone will receive it.
Col 1:18 And he (Jesus Christ) is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence.
It is, Christ interceded for it Jn 17:17Someone said belief of the truth is the result of sanctification by the spirit.
The New King Van version !2 Thessalonians 2:13 is a compound sentence, with subjects, verbs, direct and indirect objects. Here is how I understand it based on grammar and context.
We should always give thanks to God for you as beloved by the Lord.
Subject, =We; Verb = should give thanks, direct object = God; indirect object for you the beloved.
We should give thanks to God for you as our siblings in Christ!
Why?
Because God has chosen you.
Subject = God; Verb = has chosen; direct object = you.
The remaining phrases are indirect objects describing aspects of the verbs action upon the recipient.
When was the action of choosing performed? From the beginning of the New Covenant
What was the purpose of the action? For salvation
Why does "from the beginning" refer to "from the beginning of the New Covenant," and NOT from the beginning of creation? Answer, no one was chosen by being spiritually transferred into Christ before Christ died. Recall Abraham's bosom, and Jesus declaring no one, not one OT saint, had gone up to Heaven before He came to earth. Thus the New Covenant means and basis of election for salvation began after Christ died, because only then could we be figuratively washed in His sacrificial blood. So "from the beginning" refers to from the day Christ died, providing the blood of the New Covenant, until the end of the age of grace.
What were the instrumental factors? Through sanctification by the Spirit and faith in the truth.
Election was accomplished by transferring the person from the realm of darkness into Christ.
The basis of the choice was God crediting the faith of the individual as righteousness.
Thus we were NOT saved because of our faith, our faith only allowed God to credit it or not. Our faith did not deserve salvation or merit salvation, the accreditation was a act of mercy and grace. Salvation does NOT depend upon the person who wills, but upon God who has mercy.
Not to put too fine a point on it, but 2 Thessalonians 2:13 clearly teaches certain beliefs from the dark ages are false.
First, rather than Unconditional Election, scripture teaches we were chosen through faith in the truth, thus a conditional election.
Next, to be individually chosen through faith in the truth means we had come to faith BEFORE we were chosen, therefore during our physical lifetime after we had heard and learned from the Father, and NOT before we were created.
But what about Ephesians 1:4 which says we were chosen before the foundation of the world? Since as individuals we were "drawn" by the Father before we came to Christ, we were not chosen before we were drawn. Because we once were "not a people" we were not chosen to be a people before we lived as not a people. Because once we had not "received mercy" we were not individually chosen before we lived having not received mercy. Because once we were children of wrath, we were not yet the chosen children of God, precluding being individually chosen before creation.
So just how were we chosen before the foundation of the world? Corporately! When God chose individually "Logos" to be His "Lamb of God," His Redeemer before the foundation of the world, He chose corporately all those His Redeemer would redeem. His gracious choice of our Redeemer before creation therefore granted us who are now in Christ grace from all eternity. Those who would be redeemed were to have a common trait, believers whose faith God would credit as righteousness.
Its Christs responsibility to save them all, what u dont understand about that?
Christ is responsible to save that which was lost Lk 19:10
It's Christ responsibility to give repentance as Savior, that is why God highly exalted Him Acts 5 31
Why don't you just read Acts 5:31?You are not answering the question BF.
Are you saying that Christ repents for them?
Let us take a closer look at these claims.SNIP
...The idea that God chose His own people, or decreed or promised something 'before the ages' (1 Cor. 2:7), 'from the ages' (Col.1:26), 'before the foundation of the world' (Eph. 1:4) 'before time began' (Titus 1:2) is certainly Pauline. Also, the idea tht God calls men to a salvation which He has already chosen appears in Rom. 8:30.
SNIP
These Calvinists like to change the subject from 2 Thessalonians 2:13 to their manufactured disparagement of those that love them enough to be messengers of truth. So sad...The New King Van version !
Yet another idiotic absurdity, here positional sanctification, being spiritually set apart in Christ as the means of our election for salvation, is substituted for progressive sanctification where we progressively become more Christ-like as Ambassadors of Christ AFTER we are born anew.It is, Christ interceded for it Jn 17:17
17 Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.