The Bible Agnostic Test.

[37818]

per textual criticsm, the harder reading would sometimes be the preferred reading

They also do not always follow that. Also the most common reading is the most likely reading. 99.6%

 

[Will J. Kinney]

So which version of the Kjv would be the perfect one, as there have been many revisions, each different form original 1611, and which TR text is pure Greek one?

Hi JesusFan. The KJB has never changed its underlying Hebrew and Greek texts like the ESV, NASB, NIVs all do. They just corrected some spelling errors and typos. There never was a real "revision" like an overhaul of its texts. Any Cambridge King James Bible you can get at any bookstore today is the only complete and 100% true words of God in the English language.

Are you willing to admit that fact that you (like most members here) simply do NOT really believe that any Bible in any language you can show us is now or ever was the complete and 100% true words of God?

And as for John 1:18 the modern versions are a mass of confusion and uncertainty. Guess who wants things to be this way. The "Yeah, hath God said?" syndrome so widespread today.

JOHN 1:18

KJB - "No man hath seen God at any time; THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON, which is in the BOSOM of the Father, he hath declared him."

NASB 1962 to 1995 editions, Legacy Standard 2021 - "No one has seen God at any time; THE ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD who is in the BOSOM of the Father, He has explained Him."

NASB 2020 edition has now changed its text once again after some 10 different editions. It now reads: “No one has seen God at any time; GOD THE ONLY SON, who is in the ARMS of the Father, He has explained Him.” - NO Greek text reads this way.

ESV 2011 edition - "No one has ever seen God; THE ONLY GOD, who is at the Father's SIDE, he has made him known."

ESV 2025 updated edition - “God the only Son” - again, NO Greek text reads this way.

NIV 1973 edition - "No man has ever seen God, but GOD THE ONLY SON, who is at the Father's SIDE, has made him known.

NIV 1984 edition - "No one has ever seen God, but GOD THE ONE AND ONLY, who is at the Father's SIDE, has made him known."

NIV 2011 edition - "No one has ever seen God, but THE ONE AND ONLY SON, WHO IS HIMSELF GOD and is IN CLOSEST RELATIONSHIP with the Father, has made him known."

The reading followed by the NASB 1995 edition teaches that there are TWO Gods. Count 'em. There is the unseen God and then there is the only begotten God who declares the invisible God no one has seen.

The new NASB 2020 now reads like the NIV 1973 edition, which they have twice since then rejected, and there is NO Greek text that reads "God the only Son."

The ESV is utter confusion and contradiction. There we have the unseen God, and then there is the only God, who makes the unseen God known. Hellooo.......Is anybody home in there?

The NIVs have THREE different translations of this one verse, and the modern versions don't even agree among themselves.

See the whole article on this verse here and why the KJB is right, as always.

Another King James Bible Believer

 

[37818]

NASB 1962 to 1995 editions, Legacy Standard 2021 - "No one has seen God at any time; THE ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD who is in the BOSOM of the Father, He has explained Him."

THE ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD, 00.1% mss of John.
ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD, 00.3% mss of John.
THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON, 99.0% mss of John.

 

[SovereignGrace]

The Ever Changing NASBs - 1960, 1962, 1963, 1968, 1971, 1972, 1973, 1975, 1977, 1995 and 2020 editions.

Lots of revisions [1611, 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1626. 1630, 1631, 1633, 1634, 1640. 1644, 1650. 1652, 1655, 1657, 1698] for an inerrant Bible, eh?

Seems like the KJV underwent several revisions, but you ignore them, make unfounded excuses why they were not considered revisions.

Inerrant:

free from error
incapable of being wrong
If a religious book is inerrant, it contains no faults or mistakes (from Cambridge dictionary)
not erring; making no mistakes; infallible

None of these can the KJV meet, seeing all the revisions they went through.


Your double standard, see hypocrisy, is duly noted.

 

[Martin Marprelate]

If you think the New KJV is the same as the 1611 King James Bible, but with more modern English, then I hope this multi-faceted study will reveal to you that they are not at all the same in hundreds of verses.

That's a good one! No, I don't think the NKJV Is the same as the 1611 KJV. They are indeed not the same in loads of verses.

Titus 2:13, KJV. 'Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Savioue Jesus Christ.'
Titus 2:13, NKJV. 'Looking for the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ.'

2 Peter 1:1, KJV. '.... To them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ.'
2 Peter 1:1, NKJV.' '.... To those who have obtained [margin: 'received'] like precious faith with us by the righteousness of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ.'

So here are two places where the NKJV bears witness to the Deity of Christ and the KJV denies it, as do almost all te more modern versions. But you will be pleased to learn that there is another Bible translation that supports the KJV: the New World Translation of the Jehovah's Witnesses!

There are two reasons for this: the more honourable one is that the Granville Sharp Rule would not be established for another 150+ years. The less honourable one is that the translators of the KJV consulted the Greek grammar manual written by George B. Winer, a Unitarian.