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Galatians 3 - Christ being made a curse

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I am not sure with the order in declaring one just (not saying you are wrong, I am just not sold on "logical orders"). But it does anticipate a future state (we will be just, righteous, glorified, refined, in His image, a new creation, etc). Jesus is our "forerunner" (an Adam type).
I am not sure I understand what you meant by "the order in declaring one just." The order I believe to be correct is:

1) A lost unjustified, unregenerate, un-chosen for salvation, sinner hears the gospel and understands it because it is spiritual milk and his or her heart has not been hardened by God or the practice of sin.

2) The lost person responds to the gospel, and puts their full devotion and trust in Christ Jesus. They make Christ their overriding priority, over and above their love of anyone or anything else.

3) God, who knows our hearts, credits their faith and devotion in Christ as righteousness. This makes their faith righteous, it does NOT make them righteous.

4) God, based on crediting their faith, spiritually transfers them into Christ's spiritual body where they undergo the washing of regeneration, resulting them to be born anew as a new creation, blameless and eternally sinless. Thus they were justified, made righteous, not declared righteous. Without the shedding of blood, there is no forgiveness of sin. The washing of regeneration, also called the circumcision of Christ and the circumcision done without hands, removes the required penalty for their sin due to acceptance of the ransom payment of Christ.

The gospel of Christ
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Galatians 3:8 NASB
The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the]Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, “ALL THE NATIONS WILL BE BLESSED IN YOU.”

Interpretive Translation
Old Testament Scripture accurately indicated that God would justify (make righteous) the non-Jews as a consequence of crediting their faith; preached the gospel a long time before now, to Abraham, saying (Genesis 26:4) "all the nations will be blessed in you."
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The men of Israel to whom the Law was given were those from Moses ("not to their forefathers").
You don't seem to be able to understand this. 'A man is not a Jew if he is only one outwardly, nor is circumcision merely outward and physical. No, a man is a Jew if he is one inwardly; and circumcision is circumcision of the heart by the Spirit, not by the written code........... Is God the God of Jews only,? Is He not the God of Gentiles too? Yes, of Gentiles too, since there is only one God, who will justify the circumcised by faith, and the uncircumcised by that same faith. Do we then nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law' (Romans 2:28-29; 3:29-32, NIV 1984).
We (Jew and Gentile) are all in the same boat, under the curse (Genesis 3:17-19) and without hope in the world. God has sent the Lord Jesus Christ who has come and paid in full the penalty of the sins of all those who will believe, taking the curse upon Himself. The Holy Spirit has come and circumcised our hearts by faith. THere is only one people of God and they are all saved the same way.

This is a great and wonderful salvation wrought by the Triune God. Why you want to muck about with it is beyond me.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
I am not sure I understand what you meant by "the order in declaring one just." The order I believe to be correct is:

1) A lost unjustified, unregenerate, un-chosen for salvation, sinner hears the gospel and understands it because it is spiritual milk and his or her heart has not been hardened by God or the practice of sin.

2) The lost person responds to the gospel, and puts their full devotion and trust in Christ Jesus. They make Christ their overriding priority, over and above their love of anyone or anything else.

3) God, who knows our hearts, credits their faith and devotion in Christ as righteousness. This makes their faith righteous, it does NOT make them righteous.

4) God, based on crediting their faith, spiritually transfers them into Christ's spiritual body where they undergo the washing of regeneration, resulting them to be born anew as a new creation, blameless and eternally sinless. Thus they were justified, made righteous, not declared righteous. Without the shedding of blood, there is no forgiveness of sin. The washing of regeneration, also called the circumcision of Christ and the circumcision done without hands, removes the required penalty for their sin due to acceptance of the ransom payment of Christ.

The gospel of Christ
What I mean is I do not believe one is declared just and then placed in Christ (nobody who is not in Christ is declared just, nobody who is declared just is not in Christ).

I believe we are declared just based on Christ Himself as the "Last (or Second) Adam" as we will be conformed into His image (He is the Guaranteor of the New Covenant).
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
You don't seem to be able to understand this. 'A man is not a Jew if he is only one outwardly, nor is circumcision merely outward and physical. No, a man is a Jew if he is one inwardly; and circumcision is circumcision of the heart by the Spirit, not by the written code........... Is God the God of Jews only,? Is He not the God of Gentiles too? Yes, of Gentiles too, since there is only one God, who will justify the circumcised by faith, and the uncircumcised by that same faith. Do we then nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law' (Romans 2:28-29; 3:29-32, NIV 1984).
We (Jew and Gentile) are all in the same boat, under the curse (Genesis 3:17-19) and without hope in the world. God has sent the Lord Jesus Christ who has come and paid in full the penalty of the sins of all those who will believe, taking the curse upon Himself. The Holy Spirit has come and circumcised our hearts by faith. THere is only one people of God and they are all saved the same way.

This is a great and wonderful salvation wrought by the Triune God. Why you want to muck about with it is beyond me.
I do understand. I also understand that Gentiles and Jews are in the same boat when it comes to sin.

What you fail to understand is Paul's arguments based on ethnic Jews (those who disobeyed the Law) were the people under the Law and Gentiles were never under the Law. Abraham was never under the Law.

Without a grasp on those truths you end up as our salvation being God's righteousness manifested through the Law (based on a perfect Law-keeping attributed to us, which is an old heresy).

By minimalizing sin you diminish God's righteousness.

In the Bible moral wrongs are unjust (theft, adultery, punishing the innocent, murder, clearing the guilty). BUT most of the time when Israel cries out for justice it is not against a moral infraction. Sin existed apart from the Law.


You have misunderstood the phrase "we uphold the Law". We uphold the law (fulfill the law" because of a righteousness that is greater than the law. The Law was one manifestation of God's righteousness. But righteousness itself is greater. If one is righteous then they uphold not only the Law but any manifestation of God's righteousness.

Yout theology is too shallow. Think significant, not superficial. Read the Bible as a narrative rather than a resource to support any particular theory and you will see for yourself.
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I do understand. I also understand that Gentiles and Jews are in the same boat when it comes to sin.

What you fail to understand is Paul's arguments based on ethnic Jews (those who disobeyed the Law) were the people under the Law and Gentiles were never under the Law. Abraham was never under the Law.
Paul's argument from Romans 1:13 through to 8:39 is that 'Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin' (Rom. 3:9). What you are determined not to understand is that there is a moral law that has existed from eternity, which Adam broke (Romans 5:12), and which we all continue to break, so that we are all under the curse and all need a Saviour.

Without a grasp on those truths you end up as our salvation being God's righteousness manifested through the Law (based on a perfect Law-keeping attributed to us, which is an old heresy).
We are saved by Christ's perfect righteous and obedience to God, and by His suffering and death as a propitiating sacrifice in our place. When you speak of an old heresy, are you thinking of Irenaeus?


By minimalizing sin you diminish God's righteousness.
By making wild and utterly unfounded accusations you diminish your credibility on this board still further, if that is possible.
In the Bible moral wrongs are unjust (theft, adultery, punishing the innocent, murder, clearing the guilty). BUT most of the time when Israel cries out for justice it is not against a moral infraction. Sin existed apart from the Law.
The Decalogue is a summary of God's eternal righteousness and justice. It alone was spoken to Israel by the very voice of God (Deut. 5:22). It is a summary, but I think you will find that most sins fall under its scope. For example, when Adam ate the forbidden fruit, he put his wife and the devil before God and obeyed them; he made an idol out of his desires; he dishonoured his Heavenly Father; he murdered all his progeny; he committed spiritual adultery; he coveted what God denied him and stole it. But still, 'those who sin apart from the law will perish apart from the law.' 'Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law -and who are they? - so that EVERY mouth may be silenced and the WHOLE WORLD held accountable to God. We are all under God's righteous moral law, and all under the curse of that broken law. And we abide under the effects of that curse to the present time (Romans 8:22-25), whether we are Jew or Gentile, but those of us who have trusted in the Lord Jesus can look forward to a new heavens and new earth where righteousness reigns.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Paul's argument from Romans 1:13 through to 8:39 is that 'Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin' (Rom. 3:9).
Yes. Although you are mixing up arguments (Paul's argument in Galatians with hos argument in Romans, which contributes to your mistakes) you are absolutely correct that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin.

What you fail to grasp is that Jews and Gentiles were not both transgressors of the Law.

Paul explained this very clearly, which is why it is important to read epistles rather than extract verses from them. You miss the context.

Consider Romans.

There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek, but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. For there is no partiality with God. For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified...

Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God; because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin....

For the promise to Abraham or to his descendants that he would be heir of the world was not through the Law, but through the righteousness of faith. For if those who are of the Law are heirs, faith is made void and the promise is nullified; for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no law, there also is no violation. For this reason it is by faith, in order that it may be in accordance with grace, so that the promise will be guaranteed to all the descendants, not only to those who are of the Law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all, (as it is written, “A father of many nations have I made you”) in the presence of Him whom he believed, even God, who gives life to the dead and calls into being that which does not exist....Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned— for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.

We are Jews by nature and not sinners from among the Gentiles; nevertheless knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the Law; since by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified....For as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, to perform them.” Now that no one is justified by the Law before God is evident; for, “The righteous man shall live by faith.”

However, the Law is not of faith; on the contrary, “He who practices them shall live by them.”...What I am saying is this: the Law, which came four hundred and thirty years later, does not invalidate a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to nullify the promise. For if the inheritance is based on law, it is no longer based on a promise; but God has granted it to Abraham by means of a promise. Why the Law then? It was added because of transgressions, having been ordained through angels by the agency of a mediator, until the seed would come to whom the promise had been made.

Now a mediator is not for one party only; whereas God is only one. Is the Law then contrary to the promises of God? May it never be! For if a law had been given which was able to impart life, then righteousness would indeed have been based on law. But the Scripture has shut up everyone under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.

But before faith came, we were kept in custody under the law, being shut up to the faith which was later to be revealed. Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith. But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor. For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s descendants, heirs according to promise.


By starting with a theory and then going to God's Word to extract verses that you can use to support that theory you create an entirely different gospel - one that reduces God's righteousness to simple jurisprudence. You miss the gospel of Jesus Christ entirely.

But if you leave Scripture intact, keep Paul's argument together rather than viewing the biblical text as reference material, you quickly realize that sin is more pervasive and perverted than moral infractions. The Law demonstrated man's unrighteousness. No flesh is justified under the Law. All men under the Law become a curse (even Jesus, as He was hung on a tree).


Try taking Paul's words that sin reigned even before anybody was under the Law. This will help you as you go through these passages.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
What I mean is I do not believe one is declared just and then placed in Christ (nobody who is not in Christ is declared just, nobody who is declared just is not in Christ).

I believe we are declared just based on Christ Himself as the "Last (or Second) Adam" as we will be conformed into His image (He is the Guaranteor of the New Covenant).
Then you seem to agree with the order posted, a person's faith is "declared" (credited) as righteousness. Then the person is transferred spiritually into Christ. Then, after entering Christ, they undergo the washing of regeneration, which justifies them, removing any consequence of sin with the sacrifice of Christ.
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Yes. Although you are mixing up arguments (Paul's argument in Galatians with hos argument in Romans, which contributes to your mistakes) you are absolutely correct that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin.

What you fail to grasp is that Jews and Gentiles were not both transgressors of the Law.

Paul explained this very clearly, which is why it is important to read epistles rather than extract verses from them. You miss the context.

Consider Romans.

There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek, but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. For there is no partiality with God. For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified...

Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God; because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin....

For the promise to Abraham or to his descendants that he would be heir of the world was not through the Law, but through the righteousness of faith. For if those who are of the Law are heirs, faith is made void and the promise is nullified; for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no law, there also is no violation. For this reason it is by faith, in order that it may be in accordance with grace, so that the promise will be guaranteed to all the descendants, not only to those who are of the Law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all, (as it is written, “A father of many nations have I made you”) in the presence of Him whom he believed, even God, who gives life to the dead and calls into being that which does not exist....Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned— for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.

We are Jews by nature and not sinners from among the Gentiles; nevertheless knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith in Christ Jesus, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the Law; since by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified....For as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, to perform them.” Now that no one is justified by the Law before God is evident; for, “The righteous man shall live by faith.”

However, the Law is not of faith; on the contrary, “He who practices them shall live by them.”...What I am saying is this: the Law, which came four hundred and thirty years later, does not invalidate a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to nullify the promise. For if the inheritance is based on law, it is no longer based on a promise; but God has granted it to Abraham by means of a promise. Why the Law then? It was added because of transgressions, having been ordained through angels by the agency of a mediator, until the seed would come to whom the promise had been made.

Now a mediator is not for one party only; whereas God is only one. Is the Law then contrary to the promises of God? May it never be! For if a law had been given which was able to impart life, then righteousness would indeed have been based on law. But the Scripture has shut up everyone under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.

But before faith came, we were kept in custody under the law, being shut up to the faith which was later to be revealed. Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith. But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor. For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s descendants, heirs according to promise.


By starting with a theory and then going to God's Word to extract verses that you can use to support that theory you create an entirely different gospel - one that reduces God's righteousness to simple jurisprudence. You miss the gospel of Jesus Christ entirely.

But if you leave Scripture intact, keep Paul's argument together rather than viewing the biblical text as reference material, you quickly realize that sin is more pervasive and perverted than moral infractions. The Law demonstrated man's unrighteousness. No flesh is justified under the Law. All men under the Law become a curse (even Jesus, as He was hung on a tree).


Try taking Paul's words that sin reigned even before anybody was under the Law. This will help you as you go through these passages.
What you have done is to take a chunk of Scripture and post it here without any comment as to why it proves your point. I think it proves my point.
But tell me, if I cut and paste the whole of Romans - or even the whole Bible - and post it here with just a few disparaging and patronizing comments about you, will that mean I've won the argument?
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
What you have done is to take a chunk of Scripture and post it here without any comment as to why it proves your point.
No commentary is needed. Paul stated repeatedly that sin existed before the Law and apart from the Law. Paul stated that Gentiles who were not under the Law and Jews who were under the Law both sinned.

Jews and Gentiles both sin. But both were not under the Law. They were equally under sin, but both were not under the Law.

Sin reigned even apart from the Law.


One under the Law transgresses the Law and sins. One not under the Law sins without transgressing the Law.

The Law dealt with actions. Sin is a much deeper problem. It is not superficial. The Law shows man his sins.

Thou shalt not kill is a law.
But man sins when he hates another (it is the same as if he has killed... it is the same sin although not a transgression of the Law).


The Law was not given to make one righteous. It was given to show sin. Kinda like a teacher.

But sin is much deeper a problem and God's righteousness is much greater than you are willing to believe.

Your idea of justice is the Law. But sin goes deeper. It is an ontological problem. Where the Law says "thou shalt not kill" fivine righteousness says "thou shalt not hate".

This is the flaw of PSA. It treats sins as transgressions of the Law because transgressions of the Law are sins and misses the mark by assuming justice is jurisprudence. PSA views sins very lightly and asdumes a minimalist view of God's righteousness (it takes a manifestation of God's righteousness that shows man his sin as righteousness itself).
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
The Decalogue is a summary of God's eternal righteousness and justice.
This is a false statement. The Decalogue is a covenant document.

The Lord our God made a covenant with us at Horeb. “The Lord did not make this covenant with our fathers, but with us, with all those of us alive here today. The Lord spoke to you face to face at the mountain from the midst of the fire, while I was standing between the Lord and you at that time, to declare to you the word of the Lord; for you were afraid because of the fire and did not go up the mountain. He said (Deuteronomy 5:2-5)

Thos is the Old Covenant, the Law. We know that the Law is not a summary of God's righteousness (judgment) but instead is a manifestation of His righteousness.

The New Covenant is also a manifestation of God's righteousness, but apart from the Law.

The Law is just. But the Law is not divine righteousness/justice itself. It was never designed to impart righteousness but instead to show Israel by their actions (their transgressions) their sins.

You are, essentially, a modern judaizer (you cannot grasp the concept of sin or God's righteousness, but are instead trapped in the concept of the Old Covenant). You are a teacher and do not understand these things.

The Law was like a tutor (a teacher), teaching about sin by showing men their unrighteousness through their inability to live up to the requirements of the Law.

But sin itself, like justice, is a much deeper issue. The Law says "thou shalt not steal". Theft is a manifestation of sin (of coveting something that belongs to another). The Law says "thou shalt not kill". Murder is a manifestation of hate.

Sin is deeper than the action. One sins when one is tempted and carried away and enticed by their own lust.

Likewise God's righteousness-justice is greater than the Law. His justice addresses sin - not just the actions sin produces but our actual sins. It addresses the hate towards another (not just murder), the covetness (not just theft), the lustfulness (not just adultery).

You have too superficial a view of sin and too low a view of God.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Then you seem to agree with the order posted, a person's faith is "declared" (credited) as righteousness. Then the person is transferred spiritually into Christ. Then, after entering Christ, they undergo the washing of regeneration, which justifies them, removing any consequence of sin with the sacrifice of Christ.
I do, in a way. I just don't know the accuracy of logical orders (in a chronological sense).

There is not a moment where we are declared righteous without being in Christ, for example. And we are not in Christ without being declared righteous. There is not a time we are in Christ yet lacking regeneration.

Logical orders help us view the dependence of one thing in relation to another, but they can also be turned around.

I guess I do not see the benefit of separating one movement into several interdependent steps.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I do, in a way. I just don't know the accuracy of logical orders (in a chronological sense).

There is not a moment where we are declared righteous without being in Christ, for example. And we are not in Christ without being declared righteous. There is not a time we are in Christ yet lacking regeneration.

Logical orders help us view the dependence of one thing in relation to another, but they can also be turned around.

I guess I do not see the benefit of separating one movement into several interdependent steps.
1) "There is not a moment where we are made righteous unless we have been transferred into Christ and undergone the washing of regeneration.

2) "And we are not in Christ without being subsequently declared to be righteous after being made righteous by the washing of regeneration.

3) Yes, I believe when we are transferred into Christ, we simultaneously undergo the washing of regeneration, as we are "made alive together with Christ."

4) No, the exact order is given in scripture, and the order cannot be rearranged. We believe, then God credits or not our faith. This cannot be reversed. We are transferred into Christ,, then made righteous. We are NOT declared righteous, then transferred into Christ, but our faith is credited as righteousness before we are transferred into Christ. Scripture does not allow rearranging this sequence
.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
1) "There is not a moment where we are made righteous unless we have been transferred into Christ and undergone the washing of regeneration.

2) "And we are not in Christ without being subsequently declared to be righteous after being made righteous by the washing of regeneration.

3) Yes, I believe when we are transferred into Christ, we simultaneously undergo the washing of regeneration, as we are "made alive together with Christ."

4) No, the exact order is given in scripture, and the order cannot be rearranged. We believe, then God credits or not our faith. This cannot be reversed. We are transferred into Christ,, then made righteous. We are NOT declared righteous, then transferred into Christ, but our faith is credited as righteousness before we are transferred into Christ. Scripture does not allow rearranging this sequence
.

Since Scripture does not offer a chronological order (a cause and effect) of "bring declared just and then being transferred into Christ" your statement that "Scriptute does not allow rearranging this sequence" is obsolete.

1. Nobody is declared just without being "in Christ".

2. Nobody is "in Christ" without being declared just.

The reason is the declaration in the present is of a future reality. We are justified through faith - but that does not mean one has faith and then waits to be justified.

You are assuming Scripture offers a chronological order of steps rather than an absolute reality. You may be right, or it may be a predisposition.
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
No commentary is needed.
I think it is.
Paul stated repeatedly that sin existed before the Law and apart from the Law. Paul stated that Gentiles who were not under the Law and Jews who were under the Law both sinned.

Jews and Gentiles both sin. But both were not under the Law. They were equally under sin, but both were not under the Law.
OK. First question: was Abraham a Jew? I think you have said previously that he was not. Yet we read (God speaking to Isaac), 'Abraham obeyed My voice and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes and My laws.' A moment's thought will reveal that Adam was under God's moral law. Suppose that he has strangled Eve or built himself an altar to the sun; would God have said, "Oh, that's alright, Adam! Just so long as you don't eat that apple!" The very thought is preposterous. The moral law was written on Adam's heart, and in fact it is written on the hearts of all men, though smudged and defaced by the Fall. 'For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do the things in the law, these, although not having the law, are a law to themselves, who show the work of the law written on their hearts.' When someone is born anew of course, the law is re-written on his heart, wonderfully forshadowed by the re-writing of the Decalogue following the golden calf episode (Exodus 34).

Again, before the giving of the law, God says to Moses concerning Israel (Exodus 16:28), "How long will you refuse to keep My commandments and My laws?' God's commandments existed before Mt. Sinai.
Sin reigned even apart from the Law.


One under the Law transgresses the Law and sins. One not under the Law sins without transgressing the Law.
No, as I have shown above. If a Gentile commits idolatry, murder, theft or adultery, he is transgressing God's law.
The Law dealt with actions. Sin is a much deeper problem. It is not superficial. The Law shows man his sins.

Thou shalt not kill is a law.
But man sins when he hates another (it is the same as if he has killed... it is the same sin although not a transgression of the Law).
Indeed so. I think we all know this. In the Sermon on the Mount, the Lord Jesus starts by saying, "Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets....' I think that everywhere the law and the prophets occur together, they are referring to the Jewish Scriptures. He goes on to say that not even the tiniest piece of the law will pass from it until heaven and earth pass away. Obviously He is not talking about the ceremonial or dietary laws because He Himself declared all foods clean (Mark 7:15ff). It is the moral law which remains, and our Lord, far from abolishing it, tightens it up in the way you describe (Matthew 5:21ff).
The Law was not given to make one righteous. It was given to show sin. Kinda like a teacher.

But sin is much deeper a problem and God's righteousness is much greater than you are willing to believe.
There are three reasons for the law. It is given to restrain sin. Imagine the chaos if theft and murder were not illegal today!
It is given to convict of sin (Gal. 3:24) as you have said.
And it is given as a rule of life for God's people. Have a read of Psalm 1:2-3; 40:6-8; 119:97. The people who wrote those Psalms were not rejoicing because they couldn't eat pork pies or prawn (Shrimp) sandwiches. The rejoiced because they were Old Testament saints and God's moral law was written on their hearts, and it was their desire and delight to keep it. When they failed to do so, they wrote about that too (e.g. Psalms 32, 51).
Your idea of justice is the Law. But sin goes deeper. It is an ontological problem. Where the Law says "thou shalt not kill" fivine righteousness says "thou shalt not hate".
My idea of justice is God's justice.
This is the flaw of PSA. It treats sins as transgressions of the Law because transgressions of the Law are sins and misses the mark by assuming justice is jurisprudence. PSA views sins very lightly and asdumes a minimalist view of God's righteousness (it takes a manifestation of God's righteousness that shows man his sin as righteousness itself).
On the contrary, the Doctrine of Penal Substitution takes sin very seriously indeed. It required the Lord Jesus Christ to come down from heaven to earth to pay, in full, the price of it. Your silly snide remarks do you no credit.
 
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